I own a flat in a converted period property in a west-country holiday town; currently rented but I'm strongly leaning to sell.
The other flats are all owned by the same person, who has expressed interest in mine. On the face of it, this would be a win-win as I could avoid agency fees and she already knows all the quirks of the property.
But I've never bought or sold without agency; on the face of it they appear to do SFA once a buyer is found but is that true? I would for instance want to make sure the would-be owner actually has the means to purchase and isn't just trying to delay it going on the open market or some other pessimistic scenario (I don't think so but you never know).
I had thought that for convenience I might offer a slightly preferential price since it will save me maybe £5k in fees, and since we know each other a bit, but a more avaricious friend was of the opinion I should be charging her a premium on the basis that they want to own the whole property and I hold the keys(!) to that. Not how I would normally think, wondered how others might play it.
The other flats are all owned by the same person, who has expressed interest in mine. On the face of it, this would be a win-win as I could avoid agency fees and she already knows all the quirks of the property.
But I've never bought or sold without agency; on the face of it they appear to do SFA once a buyer is found but is that true? I would for instance want to make sure the would-be owner actually has the means to purchase and isn't just trying to delay it going on the open market or some other pessimistic scenario (I don't think so but you never know).
I had thought that for convenience I might offer a slightly preferential price since it will save me maybe £5k in fees, and since we know each other a bit, but a more avaricious friend was of the opinion I should be charging her a premium on the basis that they want to own the whole property and I hold the keys(!) to that. Not how I would normally think, wondered how others might play it.
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