I've noticed a couple of public sector roles (presumably inside IR35) that are offering £X on top of the day rate for accommodation costs.
My question is, would this be seen as a BIK? And would the same be true in instances when the a=client actually pays for or provides the accommodation?
I only ask because I think this is something that is going to be more commonplace from June 2020.
My question is, would this be seen as a BIK? And would the same be true in instances when the a=client actually pays for or provides the accommodation?
I only ask because I think this is something that is going to be more commonplace from June 2020.
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