Im getting come conflicting advice around income shifting under Section 660. Nixon Williams say that I have to be married to my partner (We have been living together for nine years) however various oter people tell me that I dont have to be married. On this site under CUK it suggests we dont have to be married, as long as I retain the right to take back the shares or we both get dividends paid into a joint account...
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QUOTE: Do I have to be married to a person of the opposite sex who I run my business with in order to be caught by s660 (now s624)? In other words, is it only ‘husband and wife’ firms that need to be careful under the settlements legislation, or do I still need to be wary even if I run a jointly owned company with a business partner, or a civil partner.
The settlements legislation is broad enough to cover arrangements involving cohabitees. In these circumstances the settlements legislation would normally apply where the settlor has retained some “reversionary interest” over the shares that have been issued or given to the cohabitee (for instance a right to acquire the shares back or the right to enjoy proceeds from, or the income from, the shares given away).
For example, if the non-working cohabite receives a dividend that is paid into a joint bank account, or is used to pay the joint mortgage, then the working cohabite has retained an interest. In this situation, it would be very difficult to exclude any benefit going back to the working cohabitee.
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What do others think?
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QUOTE: Do I have to be married to a person of the opposite sex who I run my business with in order to be caught by s660 (now s624)? In other words, is it only ‘husband and wife’ firms that need to be careful under the settlements legislation, or do I still need to be wary even if I run a jointly owned company with a business partner, or a civil partner.
The settlements legislation is broad enough to cover arrangements involving cohabitees. In these circumstances the settlements legislation would normally apply where the settlor has retained some “reversionary interest” over the shares that have been issued or given to the cohabitee (for instance a right to acquire the shares back or the right to enjoy proceeds from, or the income from, the shares given away).
For example, if the non-working cohabite receives a dividend that is paid into a joint bank account, or is used to pay the joint mortgage, then the working cohabite has retained an interest. In this situation, it would be very difficult to exclude any benefit going back to the working cohabitee.
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What do others think?
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