Originally posted by k2p2
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However, this definition of "zero risk" makes a number of assumptions
a) That penalties are not applied - if this is a declared scheme, they are probably right, so I will have to give them this one.
b) That interest is not applied - I am less convinced about this, despite their assurances that there is no interest.
c) That the "Lloyd's backed insurance" is worth the paper it is written on.
d) That you were otherwise intending to go umbrella if you were not using the scheme - presumably that's the position the back-tax bill would place you in. You can't retrospectively set up a Ltd, pay into a pension etc.
e) That you sit on top of the money for 6 years and not be tempted to spend it, because you thought you were buying into something that was "risk free"
All in all, a lot of assmptions to classify something as "risk free" or "zero risk". Where's that bargepole...
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