Originally posted by malvolio
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Mal, there is no such case law. The case that demonstrated "having a right of substitution meant that there could not be an employee relationship" was a case where the right WAS exercised.
There is no case where a judge has ruled that having a RoS, but not being able to exercise it, proves that you are not an employee. On the contrary, there are cases where a judge has stated that having an unexercised RoS was "only an indicator" towards the individual not being an employee.
So, ISTM that a judge is perfectly entitled to rule that, having an RoS in the contract, that cannot be exercised in practice, is a sham that can be ignored.
Why do you persist in making this claim that you cannot substantiate?
tim


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