Hi all,
I’d appreciate some perspective from anyone who’s handled something like this.
I contract through my Ltd company. Last month, I completed a short three-month engagement for a client via Agency A. That was a one-off; Agency A doesn’t have an ongoing supplier agreement with the client. The client normally sources all contractors through Agency B, which remains on their PSL.
Now the client wants me back for a new phase, but they can only engage me via Agency B. Agency A says I can’t move unless they receive a payment.
My last contract between my Ltd and Agency A had a 12-month non-compete clause; however, Agent A failed to include a non-compete clause between Agency A and the client.
Clause XX of my contract states that my company (or I) must not work “directly or indirectly” for the Customer for 12 months without the prior consent of Agency A. Yet, the Customer isn’t defined anywhere in the document. Every other section, including the Service Schedule, defines and refers to the Client, which is explicitly named.
So I’m wondering:
I just don't want Agent A to sue me; I want to understand what’s commercially reasonable and what others have experienced.
Thanks,
I’d appreciate some perspective from anyone who’s handled something like this.
I contract through my Ltd company. Last month, I completed a short three-month engagement for a client via Agency A. That was a one-off; Agency A doesn’t have an ongoing supplier agreement with the client. The client normally sources all contractors through Agency B, which remains on their PSL.
Now the client wants me back for a new phase, but they can only engage me via Agency B. Agency A says I can’t move unless they receive a payment.
My last contract between my Ltd and Agency A had a 12-month non-compete clause; however, Agent A failed to include a non-compete clause between Agency A and the client.
Clause XX of my contract states that my company (or I) must not work “directly or indirectly” for the Customer for 12 months without the prior consent of Agency A. Yet, the Customer isn’t defined anywhere in the document. Every other section, including the Service Schedule, defines and refers to the Client, which is explicitly named.
So I’m wondering:
- In practice, how enforceable are these one-sided restrictions when the agency no longer has a supplier relationship with the client?
- Would a clause that refers to an undefined “Customer” while the rest of the contract clearly defines a “Client” likely stand up in court?
- Has anyone successfully resolved this kind of dispute (e.g. cooling-off period, nominal buy-out, or just moving on)?
I just don't want Agent A to sue me; I want to understand what’s commercially reasonable and what others have experienced.
Thanks,
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