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Share splitting with non-married Partner

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    #11
    Originally posted by stephenwil View Post
    Wouldn't that be quite difficult to do if a contract is inplace for the current company to provide services etc?
    Not really, You novate the contract to the new company.

    However it's still a very bad idea. It only works with spouses, nobody else, not even close relatives.

    And sack your accountant.
    Blog? What blog...?

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      #12
      Originally posted by stephenwil View Post
      Wouldn't that be quite difficult to do if a contract is inplace for the current company to provide services etc?
      Picking the advice he likes best out of the mass of 'don't do it' responses... Nice..
      'CUK forum personality of 2011 - Winner - Yes really!!!!

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        #13
        Originally posted by stephenwil View Post
        Wouldn't that be quite difficult to do if a contract is inplace for the current company to provide services etc?
        Not really - you terminate the current contract and you then get a new contract with the new company. Happens all the time.

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          #14
          Originally posted by malvolio View Post
          However it's still a very bad idea. It only works with spouses, nobody else, not even close relatives.
          I thought that the legislation only applied to gifts between spouses being exempt from consideration as a settlement?

          If the partner is buying the shares in the company for a fair market valuation, then there is nothing that makes that illegal / inappropriate / wrong.

          Sell the shares at the appropriate value and you are fine - in the same way that you could sell them to a totally unrelated party.

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            #15
            Share splitting with non-married Partner

            Originally posted by TonyF View Post
            I thought that the legislation only applied to gifts between spouses being exempt from consideration as a settlement?

            If the partner is buying the shares in the company for a fair market valuation, then there is nothing that makes that illegal / inappropriate / wrong.

            Sell the shares at the appropriate value and you are fine - in the same way that you could sell them to a totally unrelated party.
            I believe that S660 is about gifting income rather than shares. Arctic systems won their case, in part, due to he shares being equal class and them being married. Being about income, I’m not sure that selling shares rather than gifting makes a difference with a spouse.

            I agree that gifting shares is stupid. I sold shares to my wife, albeit based on a nugatory valuation.
            Other than don’t do it, I would advise OP to sell shares based on a genuine valuation, which in effect is the retained profit.
            Last edited by Lance; 3 April 2018, 16:35.
            See You Next Tuesday

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              #16
              I haven't read the responses on here as I post this but I can guess what most of them say. "Don't do it", "you can only do it if you're married". Complete and utter rubbish based on a shallow understanding of the settlements legislation.

              There isn't really much case law on this scenario - that's the biggest risk factor, it's not been tested in court.

              It's not automatically caught by settlements legislation (despite what many think), but it's not precluded from being caught either.

              The spouse exemption doesn't apply but it's also irrelevant if you're unmarried anyway. Key test is whether or not you retain an interest in the gifted shares or any derived income. Strictly speaking, a no-strings attached gift of shares should mean you no longer retain an interest in them.

              That's got to be the shortest TLDR; I've ever written on this subject on this forum. Feel free to do a search if you want to see my much longer explanation as I'm not going to repeat it - suffice it to say that the majority of posters on here don't really understand the legislation properly, only what they've read about the Arctic case in the past.
              Last edited by TheCyclingProgrammer; 3 April 2018, 16:41.

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                #17
                Originally posted by TheCyclingProgrammer View Post
                I haven't read the responses on here as I post this but I can guess what most of them say. "Don't do it", "you can only do it if you're married". Complete and utter rubbish based on a shallow understanding of the settlements legislation.

                There isn't really much case law on this scenario - that's the biggest risk factor, it's not been tested in court.

                It's not automatically caught by settlements legislation (despite what many think), but it's not precluded from being caught either.

                The spouse exemption doesn't apply but it's also irrelevant if you're unmarried anyway. Key test is whether or not you retain an interest in the gifted shares or any derived income. Strictly speaking, a no-strings attached gift of shares should mean you no longer retain an interest in them.

                That's got to be the shortest TLDR; I've ever written on this subject on this forum. Feel free to do a search if you want to see my much longer explanation as I'm not going to repeat it - suffice it to say that the majority of posters on here don't really understand the legislation properly, only what they've read about the Arctic case in the past.
                Actually I followed Arctic end to end and I think I have a firm grasp of the legal issues. And yes, it's about who ends up with the income, and yes, a non-related person is outside the scope of S660.

                But that's not what we (or at least I) said. Apart from the neurotic fears of giving away money to "other people", Hector can easily disregard the share structure and, as I said, look through this to put the taxation liability back on the OP. Hence, don't do it.

                Perhaps read the thread properly before commenting?
                Blog? What blog...?

                Comment


                  #18
                  Originally posted by TheCyclingProgrammer View Post
                  I haven't read the responses on here as I post this but I can guess what most of them say. "Don't do it", "you can only do it if you're married". Complete and utter rubbish based on a shallow understanding of the settlements legislation.

                  There isn't really much case law on this scenario - that's the biggest risk factor, it's not been tested in court.

                  It's not automatically caught by settlements legislation (despite what many think), but it's not precluded from being caught either.

                  The spouse exemption doesn't apply but it's also irrelevant if you're unmarried anyway. Key test is whether or not you retain an interest in the gifted shares or any derived income. Strictly speaking, a no-strings attached gift of shares should mean you no longer retain an interest in them.

                  That's got to be the shortest TLDR; I've ever written on this subject on this forum. Feel free to do a search if you want to see my much longer explanation as I'm not going to repeat it - suffice it to say that the majority of posters on here don't really understand the legislation properly, only what they've read about the Arctic case in the past.
                  This was also my understanding after ringing the IPSE/AbbeyTax tax/legal helpline a few years ago. OP, Ring them for a more informed opinion
                  Last edited by pr1; 4 April 2018, 08:13.

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