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income-shifting

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    income-shifting

    question. any rules from hmrc not allowing anyone to transfer half company to a sibling/parent and remaining as director and income shifting that way. presume there is no problem passing ownership, no interest in retaining an interest in dividend, new part owner would be non-fee earning, also a first year business without full yr accounts so is valuation and CGT necessary.

    cheers

    #2
    Have you had a bit of a look around google, asked an accountant or searched the forums or have you just come here first?
    Last edited by northernladuk; 3 April 2016, 12:18.
    'CUK forum personality of 2011 - Winner - Yes really!!!!

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      #3
      Yes. It's not allowed by HMRC (in addition to not probably being a terribly clever thing to do).

      Section 660 - S660 / S660a Advice :: Husband and Wife Tax :: Income Shifting Legislation
      And the lord said unto John; "come forth and receive eternal life." But John came fifth and won a toaster.

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        #4
        "It's not allowed by HMRC" - well, no. It would be gift with sufficient element of bounty for the transfer to be deemed a settlement which would bring the settlements legislation in to play (specifically s624) however that doesn't mean you're caught by the anti avoidance provisions or that you can't give shares in your company away when there is no tax avoidance motivation.

        Nothing stops you from giving away a share of your company to a family member if you truly retain no interest in the shares or any dividends...that is the shares are given away with no strings attached and the dividends do not come back to you or are applied for you (or your spouse's) benefit.

        So hypothetically, you give a share to your parents, no strings attached and they receive dividends and the money stays with them to do with as they please. Perfectly fine. There's certainly no HMRC cases that I know of that have targeted this type of transaction.

        Of course if you really did intend for the dividend money to make its way back to you you're on shaky ground. Strictly speaking the recipient of the dividends can do what they want with their money, including gifting it back to you but good luck trying to convince HMRC if it came down to it.

        The question of course is why would you want to? It's not really a good tax avoidance strategy as you don't receive the income anyway. But if you have other genuine reasons to do it then fine.

        Yes you will need a company valuation to calculate your gain for CGT purposes although you could look into gift holdover relief which would effectively pass the buck to the recipient when they dispose of the shares. Talk to your accountant.
        Last edited by TheCyclingProgrammer; 3 April 2016, 22:38.

        Comment


          #5
          Oh, one other quick caveat, if the recipient is a minor child of the settlor then this is definitely a no go as it would be caught by s629.

          If you haven't read it I suggest you have a good read of this:
          https://www.gov.uk/government/public...-settlors-2015

          Comment


            #6
            Originally posted by ironman20 View Post
            question. any rules from hmrc not allowing anyone to transfer half company to a sibling/parent and remaining as director and income shifting that way. presume there is no problem passing ownership, no interest in retaining an interest in dividend, new part owner would be non-fee earning, also a first year business without full yr accounts so is valuation and CGT necessary.

            cheers
            And for what reason would you want to do this? If, as it seems, it is to dodge tax then this surely answers your question.
            "The budget should be balanced, the Treasury should be refilled, public debt should be reduced, the arrogance of officialdom should be tempered and controlled, and the assistance to foreign lands should be curtailed lest Rome become bankrupt. People must again learn to work, instead of living on public assistance." Cicero

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              #7
              Originally posted by Waldorf View Post
              And for what reason would you want to do this? If, as it seems, it is to dodge tax then this surely answers your question.
              Nail. Head.

              I've not read of a safer way of increasing your take home percentage than engaging a good accountant. The OP should probably wander over to the schemes section to see countless more ingenious ways of trying to trick Hector into letting you keep more of your hard-earned. While I respect the sentiment of the OP that he feels he can spend his money more wisely than the MP for Tatton, there's generally only one winner in the tax-dodging game.
              The greatest trick the devil ever pulled was convincing the world that he didn't exist

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                #8
                I'm surprised he's not been back to argue it as he hasn't gotten the answer he came here for yet.
                'CUK forum personality of 2011 - Winner - Yes really!!!!

                Comment


                  #9
                  Originally posted by TheCyclingProgrammer View Post
                  Yes you will need a company valuation to calculate your gain for CGT purposes although you could look into gift holdover relief which would effectively pass the buck to the recipient when they dispose of the shares. Talk to your accountant.
                  Valuation ?

                  Retained profits at that instant in time.

                  Then there is the goodwill to factor in.

                  I would suggest that in most cases this is likely to be zero. One ban band selling labour doesn't really have much of a brand value.

                  Comment


                    #10
                    Originally posted by TheCyclingProgrammer View Post
                    Nothing stops you from giving away a share of your company to a family member if you truly retain no interest in the shares or any dividends...that is the shares are given away with no strings attached and the dividends do not come back to you or are applied for you (or your spouse's) benefit.
                    I'm not certain that the dividends not coming back is enough to say there is no retained interest. There could be an expectation of inheriting them back at some future point for example.

                    But, ignore that and assume the recipient has total use etc, this then improves their income position. This just might, under some circumstance, be an interest. e.g. it enable the aged parent to pay nursing home fees which were previously paid by the settlor.

                    No idea of any cases in the area; but if the tax take on the overall block of money reduces - which it could well if it were diverted to the parents by the gift of shares rather than the gift of post tax income I would expect HMRC may taker an interest.

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