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Reply to: IR35 applicable for overseas clients?
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Previously on "IR35 applicable for overseas clients?"
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Discussion re: avoidance/evasion moved to here: http://forums.contractoruk.com/gener...avoidance.html
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Originally posted by jamesbrownHi, Malvolio. There are several factors, as I mentioned, including factors related to my working conditions. That being said, it was my understanding that past employment in the same role was part of the picture, so that's news to me. I'll have the contract and working conditions reviewed by B&C (or similar) out of curiosity. Thanks.
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Originally posted by jamesbrownThere are several indicators that suggest I'll be caught by IR35, including the fact that I've been employed by the client in a very similar role in the US. I'm going to operate on the basis that I'm caught...
Right. So do we want to start again?
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Originally posted by dimazigel View PostI think you can't be caught by IR35.
To be caught by IR35 HMRC must send questionnaire to your client overseas which is beyond HMRC's jurisdiction. And since your client is not based in UK it can ignore such requests of HMRC even if this happen
And not all clients are nice enough not to answer tax letters from a foreign country if they speak the language.
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I think you can't be caught by IR35.
To be caught by IR35 HMRC must send questionnaire to your client overseas which is beyond HMRC's jurisdiction. And since your client is not based in UK it can ignore such requests of HMRC even if this happen
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Originally posted by d000hg View PostAh so it's not literally employers' NI, but a separate tax to recoup the same money for HMRC
But at the end of the year, you will make a "deemed payment" calculation, which just happens to add up to the difference between PAYE and divs.
Where it gets a bit misleading - is if you make a "salary payment", you must apply PAYE to it and pay the cash to HMRC the following month/quarter. Although the total amount of tax/NI will be the same, you can be liable for late PAYE charges & interest.
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Originally posted by d000hg View PostAh so it's not literally employers' NI, but a separate tax to recoup the same money for HMRC... even if the client would never be paying that money I still have to if caught. Makes sense.
Thanks
The underlying principle if that the implied contract between the provider and the end user of those services is one of employment. But under whose laws?
Say the foreign entity does not have a UK presence. I just wonder how you could really say it would be employment (at least as it is defined in UK legislation).
If you were say, an actual employee of a US company with no UK branch, but based in the UK, do you have employment protection? It would be an interesting challenge if you tried to claim unfair dismissal, or even redundancy when let go.
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Originally posted by malvolio View PostIR35 is a personal tax paid by YuorCo, so where your client is doesn't matter.
Thanks
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Originally posted by d000hg View PostDoes Ir35 apply simply based on how you work, or is it dependent on where the client is? For instance if the client is not in the UK they wouldn't be paying employer NI if you were employed, [or] would they? In which case HMRC wanting you to pay said NI seems a bit much.
I'm discussing a fairly typical project with an EU-based client, I'd work 100% from home using my equipment and to my schedule... but as a software dev job they would be kicking tasks at me through Jira, and since it's me who impressed them they want me personally working on it, other than a certain sub-section of work which I could sub out.
If this was a UK-based client I'd be slightly concerned... setting my working hours and using my equipment is great, but lack of substitution (in real life, regardless of contract clauses) not so great.
Might be worth re-reading the PCG's Guide to Freelancing, which has been updated recently (and joining if you're not already inside), in business pointers are getting increasingly significant.
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IR35 applicable for overseas clients?
Does Ir35 apply simply based on how you work, or is it dependent on where the client is? For instance if the client is not in the UK they wouldn't be paying employer NI if you were employed, [or] would they? In which case HMRC wanting you to pay said NI seems a bit much.
I'm discussing a fairly typical project with an EU-based client, I'd work 100% from home using my equipment and to my schedule... but as a software dev job they would be kicking tasks at me through Jira, and since it's me who impressed them they want me personally working on it, other than a certain sub-section of work which I could sub out.
If this was a UK-based client I'd be slightly concerned... setting my working hours and using my equipment is great, but lack of substitution (in real life, regardless of contract clauses) not so great.Tags: None
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