I think some people are getting a bit carried away with this.
Look at it this way.........if any legitimate lender believed that a borrower genuinely owed them £50,000, and where confident in their legal ability to prove this in a court of law, then why would that lender make the offer of paying only 12% to wipe the debt clear.............they wouldn't would they.
Also, how would any creditor explain to a court that they never at any point contacted the borrower to request repayment of the alleged loan in full, but that their first communication with the alleged borrower was to offer them settlement at only 12% of the alleged debt. It all makes absolutely no sense, other than trying to hustle any level of money out of someone that they can, on the basis that they know they probably have a cat in hells chance of legally enforcing repayment, so are just trying to get smaller sums voluntarily.
Can anyone really see a judge taking this kind of approach seriously ?
Look at it this way.........if any legitimate lender believed that a borrower genuinely owed them £50,000, and where confident in their legal ability to prove this in a court of law, then why would that lender make the offer of paying only 12% to wipe the debt clear.............they wouldn't would they.
Also, how would any creditor explain to a court that they never at any point contacted the borrower to request repayment of the alleged loan in full, but that their first communication with the alleged borrower was to offer them settlement at only 12% of the alleged debt. It all makes absolutely no sense, other than trying to hustle any level of money out of someone that they can, on the basis that they know they probably have a cat in hells chance of legally enforcing repayment, so are just trying to get smaller sums voluntarily.
Can anyone really see a judge taking this kind of approach seriously ?
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