In an effort to understand what all the fuss is about, I did a little looky to work out how much a final salary pension would cost to pay for privately.
Assume a 25y/o public sector chappie works the 40 years to get their full 40/60ths final salary pension and retires at 65 with no lump sum. If they were now on 30K and their pay rises at the same rate as the pension fund investments (assumption I've made about the calculator so maybe bollux), in today's terms their final salary income would be 20K (this equates to £55K in the future money) and their monthly contribution would need to be 18.6% of salary (or £465).
Calculator used is here
Is this logic correct? Or am I missing something?
Is the value of a final salary pension equivalent to circa 19% extra?
I'm asking in General as it's not a serious question.
Ta
Assume a 25y/o public sector chappie works the 40 years to get their full 40/60ths final salary pension and retires at 65 with no lump sum. If they were now on 30K and their pay rises at the same rate as the pension fund investments (assumption I've made about the calculator so maybe bollux), in today's terms their final salary income would be 20K (this equates to £55K in the future money) and their monthly contribution would need to be 18.6% of salary (or £465).
Calculator used is here
Is this logic correct? Or am I missing something?
Is the value of a final salary pension equivalent to circa 19% extra?
I'm asking in General as it's not a serious question.
Ta
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