Does 'sending a sub' have to mean sending to the client location? I work remotely some of the time so would there be any reason my sub couldn't work remotely when doing the remote work for me, and if so what proof would need to be gathered that the substitute ever happened (aside from them invoicing me for work undertaken for me on that day, and me sucking up a day of not being paid)?
Also, how removed from my end client does a substitute I provide need to be?
Assumedly two people at the same company under contract couldn't sub for each other say on different days? E.g. I'm working on a project as a BA and know a PM on another project. If we both took time off/were unavailable at the same time, but I offered them to sub for me on my project whilst I was away and then client paid me and I paid them via my LTD?
If that's not a go-er, then assume it would be ok to sub in someone that used to work for the client (perm) but has now left (unattached/doing their own thing) for a day's worth of time?
I've had a look around the forums and see talk about whether a clause is sham or not, but not about the specifics of the action that satisfies the proof of the clause, and specifically that statement on CEST of "Has a substitute accepted by the client been provided in the last 12 months"?
Thanks for any advice you can offer on this subject. Also first post, so go gentle if I've broken any kind of cardinal rule in asking these questions!
Also, how removed from my end client does a substitute I provide need to be?
Assumedly two people at the same company under contract couldn't sub for each other say on different days? E.g. I'm working on a project as a BA and know a PM on another project. If we both took time off/were unavailable at the same time, but I offered them to sub for me on my project whilst I was away and then client paid me and I paid them via my LTD?
If that's not a go-er, then assume it would be ok to sub in someone that used to work for the client (perm) but has now left (unattached/doing their own thing) for a day's worth of time?
I've had a look around the forums and see talk about whether a clause is sham or not, but not about the specifics of the action that satisfies the proof of the clause, and specifically that statement on CEST of "Has a substitute accepted by the client been provided in the last 12 months"?
Thanks for any advice you can offer on this subject. Also first post, so go gentle if I've broken any kind of cardinal rule in asking these questions!
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