Apologies for the ignorance of my question, but I can't find a reliable answer to this.
I am the director and sole shareholder in my Ltd company and do all of the contracting work. My husband was earning above the higher rate tax threshold (in an entirely different job) when I set it up, so there was no point in setting him up as a shareholder. He was made redundant last year and is now earning around 20K as a trainee teacher. I am now in my second financial year, with a net profit of around £88K last year and am anticipating similar figures this year.
My accountant has suggested that my husband does not need to be a shareholder to transfer some of my dividends to him, thus reducing our overall tax burden. I thought that he had to be a shareholder to pay him dividends, so am now rather confused.
His income is likely to gradually increase once he completes his teacher training in July, so it may not be beneficial in the long run to transfer shares to him.
I would be grateful if someone clarify the situation for me before I go back to my accountant.
I am the director and sole shareholder in my Ltd company and do all of the contracting work. My husband was earning above the higher rate tax threshold (in an entirely different job) when I set it up, so there was no point in setting him up as a shareholder. He was made redundant last year and is now earning around 20K as a trainee teacher. I am now in my second financial year, with a net profit of around £88K last year and am anticipating similar figures this year.
My accountant has suggested that my husband does not need to be a shareholder to transfer some of my dividends to him, thus reducing our overall tax burden. I thought that he had to be a shareholder to pay him dividends, so am now rather confused.
His income is likely to gradually increase once he completes his teacher training in July, so it may not be beneficial in the long run to transfer shares to him.
I would be grateful if someone clarify the situation for me before I go back to my accountant.


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