Originally posted by speling bee
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24 month rule again
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'CUK forum personality of 2011 - Winner - Yes really!!!! -
Originally posted by northernladuk View PostSorry to be pedantic (or maybe I am just being stupid here) but isn't that different to the original scenario where your new location is outside London and you just travel in when required as adhoc travel? Or are you using both locations in London to make your point clearer?The material prosperity of a nation is not an abiding possession; the deeds of its people are.
George Frederic Watts
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Postman's_ParkComment
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Originally posted by speling bee View PostThis bit is hypothetical. I am not trying to determine whether invoicing the client for travel or using their travel system removes the 24 month rule from the occasion. Which would seem very odd to me.'CUK forum personality of 2011 - Winner - Yes really!!!!Comment
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It's nothing to do with business travel, it's to do with personal tax liability. If someone pays you travel expenses personally, you have to consider the rules. If they don't - i.e. if they cover the cost themselves or YourCo recovers its costs via an invoice, and no money transfers to your personal bank account, then there cannot be a BIK.Blog? What blog...?Comment
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Originally posted by malvolio View PostIt's nothing to do with business travel, it's to do with personal tax liability. If someone pays you travel expenses personally, you have to consider the rules. If they don't - i.e. if they cover the cost themselves or YourCo recovers its costs via an invoice, and no money transfers to your personal bank account, then there cannot be a BIK.Comment
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Originally posted by mudskipper View PostSurely it's not that simple. If myCo buys me a season ticket, I'm still subject to the 24 month rule. No money has transferred to my personal account.
Any employer in the UK can pay for an employee to travel to a workplace.
However if that workplace is not a temporary workplace as defined by HMRC then the cost of that travel is a BIK and the employee is taxed for it.
If a client who is not the employer decides to pay for the travel of a worker who isn't their employee then it's a business agreement and is not subject to the same tax treatment."You’re just a bad memory who doesn’t know when to go away" JRComment
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Originally posted by SueEllen View PostIf a client who is not the employer decides to pay for the travel of a worker who isn't their employee then it's a business agreement and is not subject to the same tax treatment.
Sounds like a nice way to dodge the rule to me.Comment
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Originally posted by SueEllen View PostIt is that simple.
Any employer in the UK can pay for an employee to travel to a workplace.
However if that workplace is not a temporary workplace as defined by HMRC then the cost of that travel is a BIK and the employee is taxed for it.
If a client who is not the employer decides to pay for the travel of a worker who isn't their employee then it's a business agreement and is not subject to the same tax treatment.The material prosperity of a nation is not an abiding possession; the deeds of its people are.
George Frederic Watts
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Postman's_ParkComment
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Originally posted by speling bee View PostSo.... if caught by 24 months, reduce your rate and get client to pay for travel?
If you can get someone other than your employer to pay for your travel, then all bets are off, according to the knowledge in the thread. But until an accountant comments, I'd be wary.
<NLUK>Of course, you could ask your accountant and see what they say....</NLUK>Comment
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Originally posted by speling bee View PostSo.... if caught by 24 months, reduce your rate and get client to pay for travel?
HTHBlog? What blog...?Comment
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