Just a sense check...
I recently signed up to FTTH internet via Hey!Broadband.
The first invoice was a pro-rata one and I didn't really think much of it being issued on the 10th of the month while the invoice date was the 1st. Supply started on the 7th.
The second month's invoice has just been issued and once again it was sent on the 10th and dated the 1st. It also says that payment is due 10 days after the invoice date, making it immediately due for payment on receipt.
Payment is by direct debit so I'm being given about 3 days' notice of payment being collected. Seeing as the first invoice was a new instruction and the second had a different amount, I'm supposed to have had 10 days' notice under the Direct Debit Guarantee (which I am given to understand is less useful than a chocolate teapot).
So, my question is: is it ok for a company to issue invoices and backdate them 10 days and make them immediately due for payment? I hesitate to do the "I don't like it, so it must be illegal" whine yet it definitely feels dishonest.
I have gone back to them to express my discomfort by this practice. I don't have an issue with paying for the service, and the invoices are for the correct amount. I just feel that backdating is underhand in some way and I don't see why it takes them 10 days to issue a fixed price invoice.
EDIT: for some reason, adding _borked to the subject line made this post accessible
I recently signed up to FTTH internet via Hey!Broadband.
The first invoice was a pro-rata one and I didn't really think much of it being issued on the 10th of the month while the invoice date was the 1st. Supply started on the 7th.
The second month's invoice has just been issued and once again it was sent on the 10th and dated the 1st. It also says that payment is due 10 days after the invoice date, making it immediately due for payment on receipt.
Payment is by direct debit so I'm being given about 3 days' notice of payment being collected. Seeing as the first invoice was a new instruction and the second had a different amount, I'm supposed to have had 10 days' notice under the Direct Debit Guarantee (which I am given to understand is less useful than a chocolate teapot).
So, my question is: is it ok for a company to issue invoices and backdate them 10 days and make them immediately due for payment? I hesitate to do the "I don't like it, so it must be illegal" whine yet it definitely feels dishonest.
I have gone back to them to express my discomfort by this practice. I don't have an issue with paying for the service, and the invoices are for the correct amount. I just feel that backdating is underhand in some way and I don't see why it takes them 10 days to issue a fixed price invoice.
EDIT: for some reason, adding _borked to the subject line made this post accessible
Comment