My Ltd has been renting an office unit. With the landlords permission I sublet desk space to other freelancers. The initial tenancy was one year which finished last week. At that point I would have gone on to a 3 month notice rolling tenancy, however unfortunately last week I did not have enough other co-workers to allow us to afford to re-sign. Instead we signed a written agreement that we could remain in the unit at a reduced rent with a weeks notice until either we were in a position to resign the lease or the landlord found another tenant.
A week later and with amazingly bad timing I have finally found two people to occupy the desks. However the landlord has informed me that he is in discussions with a third party who may want to take the unit. I told him that I was willing to sign immediately for another year but for some unknown reason he is giving this third party preference and is awaiting their decision. We have had no disagreements and have always paid rent on time etc.
I have been trying to research my legal position and whether I would have any right to request a continuation of tenancy. From the landlords point of view we have no current tenancy as our formal year contract ended. However I am wondering if simply occupying the unit with written consent constitutes a tenancy and if so would I have any grounds to appeal?
Can anyone shed any light on this? If not is there any source of free legal advice on such matters?
Thanks
Dan
A week later and with amazingly bad timing I have finally found two people to occupy the desks. However the landlord has informed me that he is in discussions with a third party who may want to take the unit. I told him that I was willing to sign immediately for another year but for some unknown reason he is giving this third party preference and is awaiting their decision. We have had no disagreements and have always paid rent on time etc.
I have been trying to research my legal position and whether I would have any right to request a continuation of tenancy. From the landlords point of view we have no current tenancy as our formal year contract ended. However I am wondering if simply occupying the unit with written consent constitutes a tenancy and if so would I have any grounds to appeal?
Can anyone shed any light on this? If not is there any source of free legal advice on such matters?
Thanks
Dan
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