Originally posted by NotAllThere
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Dice roll probability
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"You can't climb the ladder of success, with your hands in the pockets"
Arnold Schwarzenegger -
Originally posted by d000hg View Postgot a bit over your head?"You can't climb the ladder of success, with your hands in the pockets"
Arnold SchwarzeneggerComment
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Originally posted by No2politics View PostWe have to start thinking in terms of expected number of successes (ie how many 1,s and 2,s are you going to roll in total assuming you have one starting die), rather than the probability of success. I agree that you can't just double probabilities. However you CAN double expectations.
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It would certainly make the problem more tractable, IF it's mathematically valid to double expectations. Need to look that up.
But it's still complicated because MUN wants successes i.e. both 1s and 2s count as a success, bit only 1s lead to further throws.
So formulating an infinite series expression for that is not that simple, I think.
I'd love to think more on this but unfortunately must work on some infinitely less interesting statistical stuff for my daily bread. When I come back later I fully expect you to have solved thisLast edited by sasguru; 6 December 2013, 09:32.Hard Brexit now!
#prayfornodealComment
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Originally posted by sasguru View PostProblem is you can't simply work out one die and multiply by the number of dice.
Let's ignore getting a two for now.
If you have 1 dice the probability of success is 1/6.
If you have 2 dice the probability of success is NOT 2x1/6=2/6, but 3/36.
Think of the sample space with two dice. There are 36 possibilities.
For success, you could have
1, Number other than 1
Number other than 1, 1
1, 1
So that's 3/36. An additional complication is that for the first 2 possibilities on that list (a single 1) you would throw a further die.
But for the last possibility (2 ones) you would throw 2 further dice, if I understand correctly.
I think simulation with a program is the way to go - and I don't think that's a trivial task either. If only I didn't have all this work to do before Christmas, sigh
Number other than 1, 1 - and this
1, 1
Overall roll 36 times and you could expect 10 rolls to contain a single 1, 1 to contain 2, and 25 to contain none. The average number of 1's being 1/3Comment
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Originally posted by ASB View Post1, Number other than 1 - but there are 5 different cases of this
Number other than 1, 1 - and this
1, 1
Overall roll 36 times and you could expect 10 rolls to contain a single 1, 1 to contain 2, and 25 to contain none. The average number of 1's being 1/3Hard Brexit now!
#prayfornodealComment
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Originally posted by sasguru View PostHmmm, I see where you're going with this.
It would certainly make the problem more tractable, IF it's mathematically valid to double expectations. Need to look that up.
But it's still complicated because MUN wants successes i.e. both 1s and 2s count as a success, bit only 1s lead to further throws.
So formulating an infinite series expression for that is not that simple, I think.
I'd love to think more on this but unfortunately must work on some infinitely less interesting statistical stuff for my daily bread. When I come back later I fully expect you to have solved this
Doodab has solved it already! The series is stated in an earlier post.
You can add expectations together- that's basic Gcse maths stuff and the basically the foundations that all maths and probability is based upon
It's called linearity of expectation
http://www2.informatik.hu-berlin.de/...xpectation.pdfLast edited by No2politics; 6 December 2013, 09:51."You can't climb the ladder of success, with your hands in the pockets"
Arnold SchwarzeneggerComment
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Code:<?php $times_rolled = 0; $score = 0; function dice_roll($rolls){ while ($times_rolled < $rolls){ $dice_result = rand(1,6); echo "Roll number $times_rolled: $dice_result\n"; if($dice_result == 1 || $dice_result == 2){ $score++; if($dice_result == 1){ $rolls++; } } $times_rolled++; } echo "Total score: $score from $rolls total rolls.\n"; } $dice = dice_roll(10); ?>
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Originally posted by No2politics View PostDoodab has solved it already! The series is stated in an earlier post.
You can add expectations together- that's basic Gcse maths stuff and the basically the foundations that all maths and probability is based upon
It's called linearity of expectation
http://www2.informatik.hu-berlin.de/...xpectation.pdf
Think you're right, I was confusing probabilities with the required outcome which was no. of successes. Something MUN said in his initial email led to that confusion. He wondered how you could get a probability > 1, but actually we aren't looking at probability but expected no. of successes.
My mistake.Last edited by sasguru; 6 December 2013, 10:09.Hard Brexit now!
#prayfornodealComment
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Originally posted by russell View PostLove these threads where the resident self appointed Einsteins make a ass of themselves.
Originally posted by No2politics View PostThat's true but he asked for an equation, ie an exact answer
The idea is to work out the exact probabilities for various scenarios. Given the probability of a score of n for one dice (which I've provided), it is possible to work out the probability of score n with m dice - as an equation - most likely with a few combinatoric terms. Once you've got an equation for P(n,m), you can work out the expected values.Down with racism. Long live miscegenation!Comment
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