Drop 'em a note reminding them they owe £800 (plus, presumably the original deposit), followed sharply by giving them some tulip this way:
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Reply to: Landlord question
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Previously on "Landlord question"
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Email agreement is binding, especially since it was done in writing and 3rd party is involved, so hard to lie that it never happened.
Having said that such change is best done in writing as amendment to contact
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The email is a formal agreement. By them going back on it its going to cost your son so he's got a pretty rock solid case IMO. A brief chat with a solicitor and a few 10s of pounds on a letter from them to the agent will close this. The agent is only protecting his commission which is nowhere near enough to start bothering with solicitors.
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Find a local solicitor and see if they do free advice clinics. Most do. 10-15 minute free advice an issue. Go from there.Originally posted by GhostofTarbera View PostNephew rented a flat, 2 year term (10 months to run) - No break clause as 1st flat and knew no better
In November agent says landlord is selling the flat in March and can he move out (the will even give him £800) via the agent by email
He agrees via email and finds another flat, informs them he is moving out - everyone happy
Now (I presume sale is delayed) the agents are saying as they did not have a formal agreement in place they are holding him to the original contract
Is the email chain, with the offer from agent and him accepting that offer via email and moving out give him a legal basis for having no formal agreement in place (he never knew that was a thing)
Thoughts ?
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Could also try Citizens Advice, they can give advice on most issues.
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Landlord question
Nephew rented a flat, 2 year term (10 months to run) - No break clause as 1st flat and knew no better
In November agent says landlord is selling the flat in March and can he move out (the will even give him £800) via the agent by email
He agrees via email and finds another flat, informs them he is moving out - everyone happy
Now (I presume sale is delayed) the agents are saying as they did not have a formal agreement in place they are holding him to the original contract
Is the email chain, with the offer from agent and him accepting that offer via email and moving out give him a legal basis for having no formal agreement in place (he never knew that was a thing)
Thoughts ?
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