Sorted.
Well, I've had the contract and working practices reviewed and its outside IR35 .
Apparently not being able to give any notice was a big plus wrt IR35.
But also the contract is based on the client not having control of when my company does the work - it's up to my company when the work is done, as long as it fits in with the project timescales.
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Reply to: No notice period allowed contract
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Previously on "No notice period allowed contract"
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Originally posted by DodgyAgent View PostIt is not a question of "forcing" you to work. It is a question of taking responsibility if you f*** off mid contract. The client will reserve the right to sue you for damages if you do clear off.
I have never heard of anyone being sued.
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It is not a question of "forcing" you to work. It is a question of taking responsibility if you f*** off mid contract. The client will reserve the right to sue you for damages if you do clear off.
I have never heard of anyone being sued.
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Originally posted by NotAllThere View PostRead a dictionary recently...?
If A must work for B, but B can get shot of A at a moment's notice, there is no mutuality. A is obliged. B isn't.
Now, on a B2B contract, IBM can be obliged to provide services for 6 months. If they fail to do this, they are in breach. BUT, if all their employees quit, then that could be force majeur. It became impossible to fulfill the contract. If you're the sole employee of the company, it could be an interesting argument.
I've said it before, and I'll say it again. If the client insists you can't have notice, use it as a negotiating tool to get a better rate.
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Originally posted by adestor View PostJust been handed a contract where in the section about the amount of notice that I can give the client it says "No notice may be given". But its 2 weeks notice on their side.
Is that legal ?
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Originally posted by TheFaQQer View PostThat's the point - if you MUST work there, then you have a problem, since it implies mutuality. If you can argue that there is not mutuality, then the notice period (or lack thereof) is a moot point.
If A must work for B, but B can get shot of A at a moment's notice, there is no mutuality. A is obliged. B isn't.
Now, on a B2B contract, IBM can be obliged to provide services for 6 months. If they fail to do this, they are in breach. BUT, if all their employees quit, then that could be force majeur. It became impossible to fulfill the contract. If you're the sole employee of the company, it could be an interesting argument.
I've said it before, and I'll say it again. If the client insists you can't have notice, use it as a negotiating tool to get a better rate.Last edited by NotAllThere; 16 November 2008, 16:23.
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Originally posted by adestor View PostIs that legal ?
Originally posted by Liability View PostI have had a fair few of these - the bottom line is is that under EU law this is actually not enforcable - I cant recollect the Law but this was what I was told by a Lawyer speclaising in Employment Law.
Originally posted by VectraMan View PostI went through this with mine. In the end I negotiated and they agreed to change it to let me give 4 weeks notice.
Originally posted by BolshieBastard View PostTis often quoted that no notice period for the contractor strengthens the not caught IR35 position.
Originally posted by NotAllThere View PostOf course, there are those who point out that it's mutuality of obligation that's the determining factor.
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Originally posted by Liability View PostI have had a fair few of these - the bottom line is is that under EU law this is actually not enforcable - I cant recollect the Law but this was what I was told by a Lawyer speclaising in Employment Law.
You get a company to refit your bathroom for £5k, over a period of two weeks. After the first week they quit, taking £2.5k and leaving you with (at best) a half finished bathroom. Would you mind?
Therefore the client is stipulating no notice period, as they require the job to be completed.
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Originally posted by Turion View PostThat's tosh. It's more likely to be caught by IR35 as it enforces an obligation for him to be available to that client come what may. Even worse than a permie who can give notice to quit. Put simply, the client can make him do any type of work, or send him home when there is no work (without pay) and at any time call him back. Effectively he is (contractually) trapped. How can that be a genuine B2B arrangement. He needs to talk to the client and come to an equitable agreement.
PS: As i said earlier, this arrangement is unenforceable. eg. I'm sure he would be 'allowed' to leave if he threatened to piss in his gaffers face.
No it does not and its a position often used in IR35 defence. Why dont you try doing some research instead of spouting bull tulip, eh?
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Originally posted by Turion View PostThat's tosh. It's more likely to be caught by IR35 as it enforces an obligation for him to be available to that client come what may. Even worse than a permie who can give notice to quit. Put simply, the client can make him do any type of work, or send him home when there is no work (without pay) and at any time call him back. Effectively he is (contractually) trapped.
With the way things have been going with IR35 it's hard to know one way or the other how it'll be interpreted, but I think it's more of a personal question as to whether you're prepared to commit yourself to something a little unknown without a get out. I certainly wouldn't, and even in these somewhat uncertain times I was ready to turn down this contract for this reason if they hadn't agreed to the change.
Is it unenforcable? They can't force you to work, but certainly they can show they have been financially damaged by you not following the terms of agreement. I imagine what would happen in practice is the agent would not pay your final payment, citing you not giving notice as the reason, and leave it up to you to sue them.
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Originally posted by NotAllThere View PostOf course, there are those who point out that it's mutuality of obligation that's the determining factor.
btw - employment lawyer? Try a contract lawyer.
It's complicated by the fact that legally the person doing the actual work at ClientCo can leave with giving notice to their employer yourLtd as per employment law, but the company can't leave ClientCo as per contract law.
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Of course, there are those who point out that it's mutuality of obligation that's the determining factor.
btw - employment lawyer? Try a contract lawyer.
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Originally posted by BolshieBastard View PostTis often quoted that no notice period for the contractor strengthens the not caught IR35 position.
PS: As i said earlier, this arrangement is unenforceable. eg. I'm sure he would be 'allowed' to leave if he threatened to piss in his gaffers face.
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Originally posted by Platypus View PostEr, but I thought slavery had been abolished?
How can you FORCE somebody to work?
(genuine question)
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