Originally posted by eek
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Previously on "Milleage allowance after coming back to same client?"
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Originally posted by Craig@InTouch View PostMorning guys. Not directly related to the thread but in discussions about travel expenses and what is allowable; just be mindful that this area could be the current focus by Hector with the recent case of Dr Samadian vs HMRC and Noel White vs HMRC.
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Morning guys. Not directly related to the thread but in discussions about travel expenses and what is allowable; just be mindful that this area could be the current focus by Hector with the recent case of Dr Samadian vs HMRC and Noel White vs HMRC.
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Originally posted by css_jay99 View Posterm,
now you lot are confusing me !
I worked full time on client for prior to the 5mth break.
So I would think the 40% rule affects me ....
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Originally posted by css_jay99 View Posterm,
now you lot are confusing me !
I worked full time on client for prior to the 5mth break.
So I would think the 40% rule affects me ....
Leave a comment:
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erm,
now you lot are confusing me !
I worked full time on client for prior to the 5mth break.
So I would think the 40% rule affects me ....
Leave a comment:
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Originally posted by northernladuk View PostYou missed a full stop off the end of that.
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Originally posted by northernladuk View PostYou missed a full stop off the end of that.
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Originally posted by LisaContractorUmbrella View PostOk to clarify he cannot claim tax relief on the expense although I think you're being a bit pedantic
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Originally posted by LisaContractorUmbrella View PostOk to clarify he cannot claim tax relief on the expense
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Originally posted by speling bee View PostLisa, I am appalled. That is not correct and you know it.
Of course the OP can claim mileage.
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Originally posted by TheFaQQer View PostAbsolutely, you can claim the mileage allowance, providing it meets your employers expenses policy.
The correct question is "can I claim mileage without incurring a benefit in kind charge?", to which the answer would be no because of the 40% rule.
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Originally posted by css_jay99 View PostI worked for a client for 5.5yrs which ended last year. I stopped claiming for mileage at the 2yr cut off years back.
I am now back 5months later with the same client. Can I start claiming mileage allowance again?
The correct question is "can I claim mileage without incurring a benefit in kind charge?", to which the answer would be no because of the 40% rule.
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Originally posted by LisaContractorUmbrella View PostAfraid not - the 40% part of the 24 month rule applies here
Of course the OP can claim mileage.
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