Originally posted by vlc
View Post
- Visitors can check out the Forum FAQ by clicking this link. You have to register before you can post: click the REGISTER link above to proceed. To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below. View our Forum Privacy Policy.
- Want to receive the latest contracting news and advice straight to your inbox? Sign up to the ContractorUK newsletter here. Every sign up will also be entered into a draw to WIN £100 Amazon vouchers!
Reply to: Equal access within EU
Collapse
You are not logged in or you do not have permission to access this page. This could be due to one of several reasons:
- You are not logged in. If you are already registered, fill in the form below to log in, or follow the "Sign Up" link to register a new account.
- You may not have sufficient privileges to access this page. Are you trying to edit someone else's post, access administrative features or some other privileged system?
- If you are trying to post, the administrator may have disabled your account, or it may be awaiting activation.
Logging in...
Previously on "Equal access within EU"
Collapse
-
Yes. As long as the discrimination is against the company and not against a specific person.
-
A believe yes, they can reject.Originally posted by vlc View PostCan an EU company reject a supplier contract purely for the reason that the supplier is not from the same EU country? Is their any explicit legal obligation to not discriminate in that way?
e.g. Can a British company freely insist that a service is supplied by a British rather than say a German legal entity?
I think that a company can't be obligated to hire a supplier from other country. Can't be considered discrimination because they are beneficiating the companies of the country.
Leave a comment:
-
There will be all sorts of politics involved. If a French co doesn't want a German contractor, they'll make something up about why they're not acceptable and so on. It's like getting honest feedback from any interview you have - they're not going to tell you a real reason that may be illegal (e.g. wrong colour skin, wrong nationality, etc.)
Leave a comment:
-
The EU procurement regulations only apply to Public Authorities tendering for contracts over a certain value. For everyone else it's down to individual corporate procurement rules.Originally posted by vlc View PostCan an EU company reject a supplier contract purely for the reason that the supplier is not from the same EU country? Is their any explicit legal obligation to not discriminate in that way?
e.g. Can a British company freely insist that a service is supplied by a British rather than say a German legal entity?
Leave a comment:
-
There is an EU directive on public procurement, but that doesn't apply to private companies. So I would say the company is perfectly entitled to discriminate. The EU does have a lot of directives on equal access as an employee or consumer.
Most companies buy to get the best deal, so it isn't an issue. Public procurement is different as governments have a self interest in discriminating, which is why there are EU laws to prevent it.
Leave a comment:
-
Apparently, since the Brexit vote, there has been a few continental agencies doing this.Originally posted by vlc View PostWell it has happened... perhaps naive, in very plain unambiguous language.
Leave a comment:
-
Well it has happened... perhaps naive, in very plain unambiguous language.Originally posted by SueEllen View PostYep.
However most companies aren't stupid enough to phrase it that way they will simply say other companies/candidates were better suited rather than explain that you failed their compliance tests.
Leave a comment:
-
Yep.
However most companies aren't stupid enough to phrase it that way they will simply say other companies/candidates were better suited rather than explain that you failed their compliance tests.
Leave a comment:
-
Equal access within EU
Can an EU company reject a supplier contract purely for the reason that the supplier is not from the same EU country? Is their any explicit legal obligation to not discriminate in that way?
e.g. Can a British company freely insist that a service is supplied by a British rather than say a German legal entity?Last edited by vlc; 12 September 2016, 20:23.Tags: None
- Home
- News & Features
- First Timers
- IR35 / S660 / BN66
- Employee Benefit Trusts
- Agency Workers Regulations
- MSC Legislation
- Limited Companies
- Dividends
- Umbrella Company
- VAT / Flat Rate VAT
- Job News & Guides
- Money News & Guides
- Guide to Contracts
- Successful Contracting
- Contracting Overseas
- Contractor Calculators
- MVL
- Contractor Expenses
Advertisers
Contractor Services
CUK News
- Autumn Budget 2026: FCSA’s 5 contractor asks of John Healey Today 04:15
- Andy Burnham's Zoom gripe doesn’t apply to IT contractors, say recruiters Yesterday 03:41
- Check your Loan Recall paperwork for the Isle of Man: it could matter Aug 25 03:27
- Budget 2026: Contractor advisers ask for ‘IR35 reset’ Aug 24 04:57
- Why might an umbrella company fail to pay its total tax bill to HMRC? Aug 18 06:08
- Contractors, here are the late payment fixes that the Lords just turned down Aug 17 08:03
- How will HMRC's Direct Debit plan affect contractors paying VAT and PAYE? Aug 13 23:54
- HMRC's new 'reckless' tax offence: an IR35 game-changer for contractors? Aug 13 13:50
- “I’m not a Machiavellian overlord”: Adrian Sacco breaks his silence on the Contractor Loan Recalls Aug 13 06:50
- ‘Bounce back’ in IT contractor demand in July 2026, even if ‘one swallow doesn’t make a summer’ Aug 12 07:50

Leave a comment: