Grammar question

[d000hg]

I have 10 years' Java experience

Correct since years is a plural? Or no apostrophe at all?

[Peoplesoft bloke]

Correct since years is a plural? Or no apostrophe at all?

No apostrophe.

[realityhack]

That seems right to me, what about this one:
If I have an acronym, such as 'NDA', where the pronunciation starts with a vowel (en-dee-ay), is it correct to write 'I'll agree to sign an NDA'? Is it the same way in speech? Strictly speaking shouldn't it be written 'a NDA' and spoken 'an NDA'?

[d000hg]

No apostrophe.

But why... what is the rule here?

[OwlHoot]

No apostrophe.

an apostrophe (IMHO), as it's equivalent to saying "I have the Java experience of 10 years"

[Peoplesoft bloke]

an apostrophe (IMHO), as it's equivalent to saying "I have the Java experience of 10 years"

I disagree - apostrophes to indicate omission or contraction wouldn't take this form - they would generally be where the missing bit was (however I don't believe one is needed here), and there is no reason at all to use a possessive apostrophe in this context.

[d000hg]

I thought apostrophe because years is plural and "I have 10 years of Java".
My wife claims "because 'I' is the subject, not 'years' there is no apostrophe as the subject is not plural". Then she started talking about "abstract nouns" and I got confused. Of course I insisted I was right regardless and snuck off to ask CUK for an informed answer which is right.

[VectraMan]

I thought apostrophe because years is plural and "I have 10 years of Java".

Since when do you use apostrophe's for plural nouns? Apostrophe's are for possession or for contractions; neither applies here.

[OwlHoot]

I disagree - apostrophes to indicate omission or contraction wouldn't take this form - they would generally be where the missing bit was (however I don't believe one is needed here), and there is no reason at all to use a possessive apostrophe in this context.

OK, so how about this example "The madman had ten mens strength"

I'd say an apostrophe belongs there, and I'd also claim the sentence construction is the same.

However, that example does raise another question: As "men" is already plural, would one write " men's " or " mens' "?

[Peoplesoft bloke]

OK, so how about this example "The madman had ten mens strength"

I'd say an apostrophe belongs there, and I'd also claim the sentence construction is the same.

However, that example does raise another question: As "men" is already plural, would one write " men's " or " mens' "?

Because

.......Apostrophes are for possession or for contractions.

In the case of the ten men it's a possessive - that's different from the first sentence about Java knowledge which was, as Vectraman said, neither possessive nor a contraction.