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Did you reason that out all by yourself, or are you quoting verbatim from the response given by some politician this morning on the news?
The question is completely irrelevant anyway. It's a MARRIED couples allowance. Not a PARENTS allowance.
I didn't ask whether it was a MARRIED couples allowance or a PARENTS allowance, I asked whether it was moral. You may think that irrelevant, as it happens I think it is relevant because Cameron presents that as being the point of it.
Yes I quoted someone else (though not from this morning). Is it like homework, where it doesn't count if I didn't think it up all by myself?
Yes I quoted someone else (though not from this morning). Is it like homework, where it doesn't count if I didn't think it up all by myself?
Ah, it was Nick Clegg then.
In answer to your original question. No, it's not moral, but neither does it have any bearing on whether a married couples allowance will increase morality in the UK.
You really should have recognised it as standard politician issue avoidance - raising a side issue to distract the (sheeplike) audience from what the substantive point is. Nick Clegg seized on the "moral" argument. Cameron should have stayed away from that, and simply used the "fairness" argument. I.e.
"It's not fair that a married couple with only one working partner pays more tax than an unmarried couple in the same situation".
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