Hi
Looking for some advise for the below scenario...
What possible grounds would a subcontractor (a) have to object against a contra charge claim if they had damaged another subcontractors (b) materials after being verbally instructed to carry out a specific work task by the main contractor.
E.G. The main contractor had instructed a subcontractor (a) to break through a wall that the main contractor believed had no installed services. Upon review following the wall being dismantled there were newly installed, pre commissioned services of another subcontractor (b) which had been damaged. Following this, subcontractor b issued costs to have these services replaced, and the main contractor contra charged subcontractor a to reclaim these monies.
Would the subcontractor (a), who was operating under a verbal instruction be liable to repay all of these costs? FYI, the main contractor is not disputing the verbal instruction, and recognises that work was carried out under this agreement.
Looking for some advise for the below scenario...
What possible grounds would a subcontractor (a) have to object against a contra charge claim if they had damaged another subcontractors (b) materials after being verbally instructed to carry out a specific work task by the main contractor.
E.G. The main contractor had instructed a subcontractor (a) to break through a wall that the main contractor believed had no installed services. Upon review following the wall being dismantled there were newly installed, pre commissioned services of another subcontractor (b) which had been damaged. Following this, subcontractor b issued costs to have these services replaced, and the main contractor contra charged subcontractor a to reclaim these monies.
Would the subcontractor (a), who was operating under a verbal instruction be liable to repay all of these costs? FYI, the main contractor is not disputing the verbal instruction, and recognises that work was carried out under this agreement.
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