We have our house on the market as part of our divorce and have had an offer made. I have also seen a property I would ideally like to secure as my resulting purchase.
I have previously fallen into the scenario of having to accept a lower %age figure when selling a house, than when buying a new one. For example current property to sell is marketed at say £600,000 and offer price iro £575,000. Resulting purchase price again say £600,000 but offers of around £590,000 only accepted. It seems the same here again now, and so suggests that I am getting a bad deal on both sale and purchase.
So to secure the deal I may have to take the hit in the same way again to secure the sale and the purchase - any sense to this logic or just the way it pans out ? We could hang in to get a better offer, but then how long do you wait, with the risk of losing the resulting property (rhetorical question). I need to justify to be comfortable in my mind that this is a logical move for me.
I have previously fallen into the scenario of having to accept a lower %age figure when selling a house, than when buying a new one. For example current property to sell is marketed at say £600,000 and offer price iro £575,000. Resulting purchase price again say £600,000 but offers of around £590,000 only accepted. It seems the same here again now, and so suggests that I am getting a bad deal on both sale and purchase.
So to secure the deal I may have to take the hit in the same way again to secure the sale and the purchase - any sense to this logic or just the way it pans out ? We could hang in to get a better offer, but then how long do you wait, with the risk of losing the resulting property (rhetorical question). I need to justify to be comfortable in my mind that this is a logical move for me.
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