Originally posted by vetran
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Originally posted by vetran
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Presumably some despot could enact laws to criminalise every person in a country, and by your logic those people should have no reason to suggest that they have any say in how just that government or it's policies are? They did, after all, lose their freedom and right to live in a free society - why should they be allowed?
You (presumably) suppose that it's just for governments to govern because they represent the will of the governed. If prisoners are no longer represented then how is it just that they are still subject to governance?

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