I have recently started a three month contract, via a recruiter. I am working with a company which is a big multinational, selling software solutions business to business.
I have worked at the client of my client for ten days, and now the project has finished. It has turned out the sales guy at the multinational software solutions place dreamed up that the job would take three months. It took ten days. The client of the client are finished with me, and I have nowhere to go tomorrow.
Point remains though, that I have written confirmation from my recruiter of having accepted and started a three month contract with the big multinational, and I have an exact start and end date, and daily rate, in the email and everything.
I'm thinking the recruitment company must have a counterpart written contract between them and the multinational, to supply me for three months.
Now to my thinking, it's a crying shame for the multinational that their client no longer requires me, but they must have signed a three month contract to buy in my time and skills, between the two rigidly defined dates (start date, end date) at the exact defined daily rate in the contract, which will be slightly higher than what I get, cause the recruiter and their company hold the contract, and they take their cut etc, etc.
So my thinking is, even if I get the job of shuffling papers at the multinational's offices, surely I am now employed by them, regardless of the whims of any of their own clients, for three months. And whatever happens, I should be able to get the full pay from the three month contract.
I'm thinking I should do the following:
i) Ask my recruiter for a full copy of the contract between them and the multinational for use in court.
ii) Speak to a solicitor about making a claim for compensation for the remainder of the contract still to run.
What do you guys think? I guess there's always the possibility the recruitment company have a dodgy contract with the multinational that has some crazy get out clause in case of subclient changing mind type thing, but if no such clause exists, do you think my case is good?
I have worked at the client of my client for ten days, and now the project has finished. It has turned out the sales guy at the multinational software solutions place dreamed up that the job would take three months. It took ten days. The client of the client are finished with me, and I have nowhere to go tomorrow.
Point remains though, that I have written confirmation from my recruiter of having accepted and started a three month contract with the big multinational, and I have an exact start and end date, and daily rate, in the email and everything.
I'm thinking the recruitment company must have a counterpart written contract between them and the multinational, to supply me for three months.
Now to my thinking, it's a crying shame for the multinational that their client no longer requires me, but they must have signed a three month contract to buy in my time and skills, between the two rigidly defined dates (start date, end date) at the exact defined daily rate in the contract, which will be slightly higher than what I get, cause the recruiter and their company hold the contract, and they take their cut etc, etc.
So my thinking is, even if I get the job of shuffling papers at the multinational's offices, surely I am now employed by them, regardless of the whims of any of their own clients, for three months. And whatever happens, I should be able to get the full pay from the three month contract.
I'm thinking I should do the following:
i) Ask my recruiter for a full copy of the contract between them and the multinational for use in court.
ii) Speak to a solicitor about making a claim for compensation for the remainder of the contract still to run.
What do you guys think? I guess there's always the possibility the recruitment company have a dodgy contract with the multinational that has some crazy get out clause in case of subclient changing mind type thing, but if no such clause exists, do you think my case is good?

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