Hi,
Following on from a my previous post "Sack or sue an incompetent pimp" I've made some headway with the muppets at the agency.
They've made payment to cover the outstanding monies and things are moving the right direction.
However, true to form they have just made another balls up as follows:
I submitted an invoice, lets call it invoice A - for one weeks work.
On the same payslip they have paid me twice i.e two payments for 35 hours but at different rates for invoice A. Not a big difference, but I'm ahead thru receiving nearly twice what was due to me.
Given all the hassle the agency has caused me I'm not in a hurry to point out the mistake. When I get round to it (and it won't be for a while) I'll send them as vague letter about a discrepancy and ask them to get in touch. Will basically count on their incompetence as a factor in my favour for once. I will of course charge them £100 admin fee for issueing the cheque to repay these monies should they ever get round to asking for them. (as you can probably tell I'm not best pleased with this pimp and intend sticking it to them at any given opportunity).
Anyway my question is this.
If I issue invoice B for say 40 hours. Can they legally deduct the overpayment from invoice A and pay me the balance?
Thanks in advance for any advice.
Cheers,
Alan
Following on from a my previous post "Sack or sue an incompetent pimp" I've made some headway with the muppets at the agency.
They've made payment to cover the outstanding monies and things are moving the right direction.
However, true to form they have just made another balls up as follows:
I submitted an invoice, lets call it invoice A - for one weeks work.
On the same payslip they have paid me twice i.e two payments for 35 hours but at different rates for invoice A. Not a big difference, but I'm ahead thru receiving nearly twice what was due to me.
Given all the hassle the agency has caused me I'm not in a hurry to point out the mistake. When I get round to it (and it won't be for a while) I'll send them as vague letter about a discrepancy and ask them to get in touch. Will basically count on their incompetence as a factor in my favour for once. I will of course charge them £100 admin fee for issueing the cheque to repay these monies should they ever get round to asking for them. (as you can probably tell I'm not best pleased with this pimp and intend sticking it to them at any given opportunity).
Anyway my question is this.
If I issue invoice B for say 40 hours. Can they legally deduct the overpayment from invoice A and pay me the balance?
Thanks in advance for any advice.
Cheers,
Alan


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