Hi,
Last year I worked for a 4 months contract in Germany using a non German sole trader company. I went to two German fiscal advisors and the first one told me that I should pay income tax in Germany because I rented an apartment and I lived here with my husbant while the other one told me it is not the case. The last one also reccomend that if I want to be extra sure to go to Finanzamt to ask, which I did.
The person from Finanzamt office was no clue. Luckily I found another person who also call one of his colleague and after a 20 minute debate they concluded that I don't have to pay anything in Germany. Their argument was based on this paragraph from the double tax avoidance treaty between the countries:
"Independent Personal Services
(1) Income derived by an individual who is a resident of a Contracting State in respect of professional services or other activities of an independent character shall be taxable only in that State unless he has a fixed base regularly available to him in the
other Contracting State for the purpose of performing his activities"
They consider that working on a shared office at the customer site for 4 months doesn't qualify as a "fixed base".
But what worries me is that the took so much time to reach this conclusion, and I wonder if in the future some of their colleagues will interpret things in the same manner. They said that thing are pretty clear, but being a paranoid person I keep digging into this subject and I found this forum, full of horror stories about Finanzamt. And then my anxiety grew even more when I found this in the double taxation agreement:
"(3) Where by reason of the provisions of paragraph 1 a company is a resident of both Contracting States, then it shall be
deemed to be a resident of the State in which its place of effective management is situated."
My question is, could the two Finanzamt guys miss this statement or they considered that doesn't apply? Unfortunately back then I didn't know about this paragraph to ask them and now I'm not in Germany anymore ...
Last year I worked for a 4 months contract in Germany using a non German sole trader company. I went to two German fiscal advisors and the first one told me that I should pay income tax in Germany because I rented an apartment and I lived here with my husbant while the other one told me it is not the case. The last one also reccomend that if I want to be extra sure to go to Finanzamt to ask, which I did.
The person from Finanzamt office was no clue. Luckily I found another person who also call one of his colleague and after a 20 minute debate they concluded that I don't have to pay anything in Germany. Their argument was based on this paragraph from the double tax avoidance treaty between the countries:
"Independent Personal Services
(1) Income derived by an individual who is a resident of a Contracting State in respect of professional services or other activities of an independent character shall be taxable only in that State unless he has a fixed base regularly available to him in the
other Contracting State for the purpose of performing his activities"
They consider that working on a shared office at the customer site for 4 months doesn't qualify as a "fixed base".
But what worries me is that the took so much time to reach this conclusion, and I wonder if in the future some of their colleagues will interpret things in the same manner. They said that thing are pretty clear, but being a paranoid person I keep digging into this subject and I found this forum, full of horror stories about Finanzamt. And then my anxiety grew even more when I found this in the double taxation agreement:
"(3) Where by reason of the provisions of paragraph 1 a company is a resident of both Contracting States, then it shall be
deemed to be a resident of the State in which its place of effective management is situated."
My question is, could the two Finanzamt guys miss this statement or they considered that doesn't apply? Unfortunately back then I didn't know about this paragraph to ask them and now I'm not in Germany anymore ...
Comment