Given two remote contracts, both billable by the day. One of the contracts does not require accounting of the exact hours worked, the other I'm not sure (I haven't begun yet) but I don't think so because it's very deliverable-focussed (there's a precise deliverable per week).
Both clients are aware that they're not a special flower and that I have other work, although I haven't give a blow-by-blow account to either of the precise allocation.
Is there any possible scope here for being in breach of contract by not fully allocating a given workday to one or other client?
Novel situation for me, so trying to close down possible loopholes.
Both clients are aware that they're not a special flower and that I have other work, although I haven't give a blow-by-blow account to either of the precise allocation.
Is there any possible scope here for being in breach of contract by not fully allocating a given workday to one or other client?
Novel situation for me, so trying to close down possible loopholes.
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