Originally posted by Clare@InTouch
View Post
- Visitors can check out the Forum FAQ by clicking this link. You have to register before you can post: click the REGISTER link above to proceed. To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below. View our Forum Privacy Policy.
- Want to receive the latest contracting news and advice straight to your inbox? Sign up to the ContractorUK newsletter here. Every sign up will also be entered into a draw to WIN £100 Amazon vouchers!
Moving from umbrella to ltd on renewal
Collapse
X
-
I meant NLUK really.The material prosperity of a nation is not an abiding possession; the deeds of its people are.
George Frederic Watts
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Postman's_Park -
But if the cap fits....Originally posted by speling bee View PostI meant NLUK really.'CUK forum personality of 2011 - Winner - Yes really!!!!
Comment
-
But wouldn't he still fail the 40% rule? He has still been there over 40% of the time over a two year period regardless where his permanent place assumed to be?Originally posted by ContrataxLtd View PostHi Spelling Bee
Just to give my 2p's worth.
Joe's time at Bank #1 was a permanent location because he had no other location for work i.e. had had to work at the bank under that employment. Now that he's gone contracting his permanent location is his home office and Bank #2 becomes a temporary location so he can start claiming travel expenses up until the point he expects to be at that same location for over 24 months which in this case appears to be for the first 6 months of contracting there.
One thing a lot of people forget it that for a location to be temporary there has to be another location that is the permanent location, if there isn't then by default the first location is a permanent one and it is for this reason that employees can't claim for ordinary commuting.
HTH
Martin
Contratax LtdLast edited by northernladuk; 18 June 2014, 23:25.'CUK forum personality of 2011 - Winner - Yes really!!!!
Comment
-
The 40% rule would only kick in once he's been there, or expects to be there over 24 months. Up until that point, the contract, in my opinion is at a temporary workplace.Originally posted by northernladuk View PostBut wouldn't he still fail the 40% rule? He has still been there over 40% of the time over a two year period regardless where his permanent place assumed to be?
Martin
Contratax LtdComment
- Home
- News & Features
- First Timers
- IR35 / S660 / BN66
- Employee Benefit Trusts
- Agency Workers Regulations
- MSC Legislation
- Limited Companies
- Dividends
- Umbrella Company
- VAT / Flat Rate VAT
- Job News & Guides
- Money News & Guides
- Guide to Contracts
- Successful Contracting
- Contracting Overseas
- Contractor Calculators
- MVL
- Contractor Expenses
Advertisers


Comment