Would appreciate any views on timing of issuing a dividend after a share transfer, reasonable commercial justification and other mechanics to get right and overall whether I should be as concerned as I now am. I'm trying to do everything squeaky clean (I do all the dividend paperwork at the right time rather than end of year etc), but even then there seems to be no black and white on this stuff.
Answer that questiona and you will see that you cannot do this in a squeaky clean method due to the whole reason you are doing it. It's about the level of risk you are happy with IMO.
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