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Does a gap of 3 months between contracts reset the 24 month rule?
I think the most heinous part of the recent changes is that if they can deem you to have made no substantive change to your journey then they can treat it as a single site.
So if you live in London and travel to a gig in Leeds, and then later, travel to a gig in Bradford or Wakefield, they could argue that the journey is pretty much identical, even if the places are quite far apart.
Which recent changes are you referring to?
I remember it being this way in 1998.
I remember flares the first time round. 88 is recent for me
Seriously, I thought this was a recent thing, i thought they were 'cracking down' on expense claims
The 24 month rule comes into place as soon as you know you will be there for more than 24 months, 3 months isn’t enough of a gap (not sure but its at least a year) so 12+3+10 = 25 months so you should have stopped claiming travel expenses when you took the 10 month contract.
Thank you for all the replies.
I didn't consider the possibility that 'time' at a temporary work location could be interpreted as 'time elapsed' (12+3+10=25 months) rather than 'time worked' (12+10=22 months) .
Suppose you did a 6 month contract once a year (January to June) at a particular site. Does that really mean that travel expenses are not claimable in year 3?
I didn't consider the possibility that 'time' at a temporary work location could be interpreted as 'time elapsed' (12+3+10=25 months) rather than 'time worked' (12+10=22 months) .
Suppose you did a 6 month contract once a year (January to June) at a particular site. Does that really mean that travel expenses are not claimable in year 3?
My opinion would be not claimable, as you would still be there over 40% of the time.
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