Originally posted by malvolio
					
						
						
							
							
							
							
								
								
								
								
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		Example:
My personal income would be my salary ( £5435 attracting 0% tax ) + dividends. Plan is to take dividends below threshold of £39825, therefore potentially I could have around 30900 in dividends ( 90% of 39825-5435 ) +-Interest accrued etc.
My question being my total personal income then is 36335. Does that mean there is a set % on this amount that i would have to pay when doing a SA on this, or it ir a case that salary attracts 0% tax and dividends 10% is paid in form of CT so there is very little to be paid when a SA is done.
Please note this is just an example .... so please go easy if there a flaws to the thought process. Assumption being no rental income or any other forms of income. Purely salary and dividends.
I await to slaughtering to commence!
							
						


 
							
						
				
				
				
				
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