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Dividends are paid by a company to its shareholders as a distribution or share of the profits.
Dividends are always declared and paid net of tax at a rate of 10%.
This 10% tax credit is not actually paid by the shareholder or the company – it is treated by the Inland Revenue as a deemed payment of tax.
Provided that the recipient of the dividend is not a higher rate tax payer then no further tax will be due on the dividend. The dividend received would be treated as tax paid.
Higher rate tax payers will be liable for an additional charge on any dividends that exceed the higher rate threshold.
Example
Net Dividend £800.00 90%
Tax Credit £89.00 10%
Gross Dividend £889.00 100%
Basic rate and non-taxpayers will receive £800 with tax fully paid – there is no further liability.
Higher Rate Taxpayers will be liable for additional tax as follows:
Gross Dividend £889.00
Tax @ 32.5% £289.00
Less Tax Credit £ 89.00
Net Additional Tax Due £200.00 (=25% of net dividend)
Net Dividend after tax £600.00 (=75% of net dividend)
Alan
If the 10% tax credit is not actually paid by the shareholder or the company and it is treated by the Inland Revenue as a deemed payment of tax what would happen to £89.00 that would remain in the company account after the distribution?
Why even have a credit if there is no gain for loss by any party?
If this is the case does the £89.00 remain as retained profit for distribution in the future?
what would happen to £89.00 that would remain in the company account after the distribution?
The £89 doesn't actually exist anywhere. If it helps, think of it as tax you owe that has already been paid into HMRC's bank account. Assume they set it aside out of the Corporation Tax the company paid, in whatever year the profit was made that funded the dividend. This isn't correct, but it helps you draw the right conclusions about your tax position.
In the olden days, before Gordon Brown brought his fiddling ways to the treasury, the amount you paid in Corporation Tax was exactly the same amount as the tax credit, so you could think of the tax credit as representing the corporation tax already paid. (You still can, if you're good enough at double-think to ignore the fact that the amounts are different.)
Why even have a credit if there is no gain for loss by any party?
There may be a gain or loss if your overall income makes you a higher-rate tax-payer. The credit, like the net dividend, uses up part of your basic rate band. If there was no credit, you could have an extra £89 of taxable income without becoming a higher-rate taxpayer.
Last edited by IR35 Avoider; 8 January 2008, 19:58.
For example, if one was paid a salary for 07/08 of £5225.00 (with no other income form any other source) what is the net dividend that can be paid before the higher tax band kicks in?
Is it £34,600 or is that the gross dividend amount?
The £89 doesn't actually exist anywhere. If it helps, think of it as tax you owe that has already been paid into HMRC's bank account. Assume they set it aside out of the Corporation Tax the company paid, in whatever year the profit was made that funded the dividend. This isn't correct, but it helps you draw the right conclusions about your tax position.
Ok, I understand that neither the company nor the individual need to account to HMRC for that tax but doesn't it still leave a problem of how to extract that 10% that is retained in the company?
An example to show what I mean:
Gross profit: 50,000
Corp tax: 10,000
Net profit: 40,000
Dividends declared from from net profit: 40,000
Dividends paid to shareholders: 36,000
This leaves 4k in the co, which presumably you can't declare as dividends since then the total declared dividend would exceed the net profit. So how would you extract that from the company?
Or could you actually pay the whole 40,000 in dividends to the shareholders? That would seem strange as then the (notional) gross dividend of 40k/0.9 = 44,444 would exceed net profit, which would seem to go against the principle that dividends can only be declared out of net profits after corporation tax.
Ok, I understand that neither the company nor the individual need to account to HMRC for that tax but doesn't it still leave a problem of how to extract that 10% that is retained in the company?
An example to show what I mean:
Gross profit: 50,000
Corp tax: 10,000
Net profit: 40,000
Dividends declared from from net profit: 40,000
Dividends paid to shareholders: 36,000
This leaves 4k in the co, which presumably you can't declare as dividends since then the total declared dividend would exceed the net profit. So how would you extract that from the company?
Or could you actually pay the whole 40,000 in dividends to the shareholders? That would seem strange as then the (notional) gross dividend of 40k/0.9 = 44,444 would exceed net profit, which would seem to go against the principle that dividends can only be declared out of net profits after corporation tax.
The company can pay the full £40k in dividends. You need to understand the difference between company and personal tax.
From the company's perspective it just pays the 20% Corporation Tax on £50k and can distribute £40k.
From the individual's perspective they receive £40k but needs to account for the 10% notional tax credit.
The company doesn't 'see' the 10% tax credit, and the individual doesn't 'see' the CT.
Ok, I understand that neither the company nor the individual need to account to HMRC for that tax but doesn't it still leave a problem of how to extract that 10% that is retained in the company?
An example to show what I mean:
Gross profit: 50,000
Corp tax: 10,000
Net profit: 40,000
Dividends declared from from net profit: 40,000
Dividends paid to shareholders: 36,000
This leaves 4k in the co, which presumably you can't declare as dividends since then the total declared dividend would exceed the net profit. So how would you extract that from the company?
Or could you actually pay the whole 40,000 in dividends to the shareholders? That would seem strange as then the (notional) gross dividend of 40k/0.9 = 44,444 would exceed net profit, which would seem to go against the principle that dividends can only be declared out of net profits after corporation tax.
You need to understand about double taxation.
The idea is that it is wrong to pay tax twice on income, once in the company and once for the individual. So when a company pays a dividend the CT it paid imputes the individual's basic rate of tax.
It's only a partial imputation system - if you are a higher rate tax payer there is additional tax to pay.
The 10% is an arbitrary number because of differential CT rates for small and large companies. It represents the tax paid by the company.
So dividend tax is 10%, and the dividend comes with a tax credit of 10%.
So a £40k dividend received in your bank will be declared as
£40,000 net dividend
£4,444.44 tax credit (a credit for you representing tax already paid by the company)
£44,444.44 gross dividend
In fact this would attract some additional tax at this level.
Assuming personal allowance is £5k, and higher rate is £35k, then with no other income, you have gone £4,444.44 into higher rate tax.
I have to admit that I still find this confusing after operating this way for several years. I have given up really understanding it in fine detail and I just rely on my spreadsheets to tell me what I can draw out and what the tex credit/tax should be. I have a spreadsheet that automatically does the dividend vouchers for me as well. That saves headaches every three months when I do the divi's.
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