Hi there,
I've had a search on the forum and can’t find a definitive answer to my query, so can I ask the consensus of the board:
I’ve recently moved into permanent employment after a number of years contracting.
In order to get the 25k+ cash out of my company in a tax efficient manner, I’m planning to use the MVL / ER route to close it down.
I’ve been in contact with an IP recommended to me by my accountants to discuss how they handle this process. The IP are registered with the Insolvencies Practitioners Association and R3.
One point of concern for me was the process by which my company’s funds would be protected by a bond.
The IP have said that they can only be appointed as the Insolvency Practitioners once my company’s funds have been transferred to their bank account. The bond will then be issued to protect the funds shortly afterwards. They said that, whilst they understand my concern, that this is common practice.
Obviously, this raises a concern as there will be a period when my company’s funds are unprotected by a bond.
Can anyone shed any light as to whether this is in fact correct and common practice or not?
Thanks in advance.
I've had a search on the forum and can’t find a definitive answer to my query, so can I ask the consensus of the board:
I’ve recently moved into permanent employment after a number of years contracting.
In order to get the 25k+ cash out of my company in a tax efficient manner, I’m planning to use the MVL / ER route to close it down.
I’ve been in contact with an IP recommended to me by my accountants to discuss how they handle this process. The IP are registered with the Insolvencies Practitioners Association and R3.
One point of concern for me was the process by which my company’s funds would be protected by a bond.
The IP have said that they can only be appointed as the Insolvency Practitioners once my company’s funds have been transferred to their bank account. The bond will then be issued to protect the funds shortly afterwards. They said that, whilst they understand my concern, that this is common practice.
Obviously, this raises a concern as there will be a period when my company’s funds are unprotected by a bond.
Can anyone shed any light as to whether this is in fact correct and common practice or not?
Thanks in advance.
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