Example two: Anders works in human resources as a consultant and is taken on by a client who wants him to design new systems in a project which lasts 17 months. He is then needed urgently on a project in one of the client’s other offices, before returning to the previous client’s offices for 6 months in order to implement the new system, which was part of the initial contract. Because this additional period was planned from the outset, Anders initially had the expectation of working at the main client site for less than 24 months, so relief can be claimed for the first 17 month stint. He can also claim relief for the 3 months spent at the secondary site as this constitutes a separate site, however, he cannot claim for the final 6 month period as he now has the expectation of working at the same site for more than 40 per cent of his time in a 24 month period.
From NW website - not the same. Anders hasnt worked 24 months but HAS started over 24 months ago with a non-resetting break in the middle.
This is different to what others (including myself) understand. If this is wrong then fair enough, but if not, it seems to contradict the commonly held believe that 40% doesnt matter until you get to 24 months anyway.
This is not just me harping on about something I dont understand. BUT can anyone explain this interpretation?
From NW website - not the same. Anders hasnt worked 24 months but HAS started over 24 months ago with a non-resetting break in the middle.
This is different to what others (including myself) understand. If this is wrong then fair enough, but if not, it seems to contradict the commonly held believe that 40% doesnt matter until you get to 24 months anyway.
This is not just me harping on about something I dont understand. BUT can anyone explain this interpretation?
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