Originally posted by BlasterBates
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Reply to: Question For Mathematicians
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Previously on "Question For Mathematicians"
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ok ok I'll rephrase it
R is the set of real numbers
so what we are proving is the following
The set X = {x:R | x > 0}
for all x1, x2 in X the following is true x1 + x2 > 0
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My A-level maths is not good enough to follow some of these arguments.
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Originally posted by Euro-commuterImplicit in the definitions of unity and inverse, no?
What you prove on the way, and what is taken as obvious, has always intrigued me. Technically, all of mathematics is tautologically implicit in the axioms. A "proof" is an exposition of the steps in detail small enough for mathematicians to follow, and preferably too great for others to follow .
x > 0 => x + (-x) > 0 + (-x) => 0 > -x QED
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Originally posted by boredYour proof indeed almost derives from the axioms - you haven't proved that if x>0, then -x<0.
What you prove on the way, and what is taken as obvious, has always intrigued me. Technically, all of mathematics is tautologically implicit in the axioms. A "proof" is an exposition of the steps in detail small enough for mathematicians to follow, and preferably too great for others to follow .
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Originally posted by Euro-commuterI assumed a strict total order, i.e. asymmetric and transitive. But it does indeed have to be at least a group. Surely though the proof for a strictly stronger space like a ring or a field would be just the same as for a group? Only the basic group properties are being used here. (note to the less technical: what I mean by that is that a proof relating to addition and subtraction is just the same whether you are able to do multiplication or not).
A simple proof that starts from the axioms would be like this:
a) x > 0 => x + y > 0 + y = y
b) x + y > y, y > 0 => x + y > 0
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Originally posted by BlasterBatesSimple question fo mathematicians
If x > 0 and y > 0
How do you formally prove x+y > 0
As someone else mentioned (I forget who), x > 0 implies x + y > y for any real y (not necessarily positive).
Also by the transitive property of a strict total order if z > y and y > t then z > t, where in particular you can take z = x + y and t = 0.
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Originally posted by boredThe exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.Last edited by Euro-commuter; 31 July 2007, 20:26.
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Originally posted by boredThe exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.
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Originally posted by boredThe exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.Last edited by scotspine; 31 July 2007, 16:31.
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The exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.
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Originally posted by BlasterBatesSimple question fo mathematicians
If x > 0 and y > 0
How do you formally prove x+y > 0
x > 0
y > 0
x+y <= 0.
then x+y-y <= 0-y
i.e. x <= -y
but y > 0 so -y < 0
therefore x < 0 which contradicts first premise.
Therefore the assumption is false, so there do not exist x any y such that
x > 0
y > 0
x+y <= 0.
Therefore x+y > 0.
PS just how many of us claimed to have a maths degree??
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