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Previously on "Question For Mathematicians"

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  • richard-af
    replied
    Originally posted by BlasterBates
    ok ok I'll rephrase it

    R is the set of real numbers

    so what we are proving is the following

    The set X = {x:R | x > 0}

    for all x1, x2 in X the following is true x1 + x2 > 0
    Just when I thought I'd learnt the ruddiments of awk, this pops up.

    Leave a comment:


  • BlasterBates
    replied
    ok ok I'll rephrase it

    R is the set of real numbers

    so what we are proving is the following

    The set X = {x:R | x > 0}

    for all x1, x2 in X the following is true x1 + x2 > 0

    Leave a comment:


  • sasguru
    replied
    My A-level maths is not good enough to follow some of these arguments.

    Leave a comment:


  • bored
    replied
    Originally posted by Euro-commuter
    Implicit in the definitions of unity and inverse, no?

    What you prove on the way, and what is taken as obvious, has always intrigued me. Technically, all of mathematics is tautologically implicit in the axioms. A "proof" is an exposition of the steps in detail small enough for mathematicians to follow, and preferably too great for others to follow .
    The statement is not part of the axioms, so it must be proved. The proof is trivial but so is the proof to the original question.

    x > 0 => x + (-x) > 0 + (-x) => 0 > -x QED

    Leave a comment:


  • Cowboy Bob
    replied
    What if > is overloaded C++ style...

    Leave a comment:


  • Euro-commuter
    replied
    Originally posted by bored
    Your proof indeed almost derives from the axioms - you haven't proved that if x>0, then -x<0.
    Implicit in the definitions of unity and inverse, no?

    What you prove on the way, and what is taken as obvious, has always intrigued me. Technically, all of mathematics is tautologically implicit in the axioms. A "proof" is an exposition of the steps in detail small enough for mathematicians to follow, and preferably too great for others to follow .

    Leave a comment:


  • bored
    replied
    Originally posted by Euro-commuter
    I assumed a strict total order, i.e. asymmetric and transitive. But it does indeed have to be at least a group. Surely though the proof for a strictly stronger space like a ring or a field would be just the same as for a group? Only the basic group properties are being used here. (note to the less technical: what I mean by that is that a proof relating to addition and subtraction is just the same whether you are able to do multiplication or not).
    Your proof indeed almost derives from the axioms - you haven't proved that if x>0, then -x<0.

    A simple proof that starts from the axioms would be like this:

    a) x > 0 => x + y > 0 + y = y
    b) x + y > y, y > 0 => x + y > 0

    Leave a comment:


  • OwlHoot
    replied
    Originally posted by BlasterBates
    Simple question fo mathematicians

    If x > 0 and y > 0

    How do you formally prove x+y > 0
    Assuming x and y are real numbers, it follows from the fact that the set of real numbers is an ordered field

    As someone else mentioned (I forget who), x > 0 implies x + y > y for any real y (not necessarily positive).

    Also by the transitive property of a strict total order if z > y and y > t then z > t, where in particular you can take z = x + y and t = 0.

    Leave a comment:


  • Euro-commuter
    replied
    Originally posted by bored
    The exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.
    I assumed a strict total order, i.e. asymmetric and transitive. But it does indeed have to be at least a group. Surely though the proof for a strictly stronger space like a ring or a field would be just the same as for a group? Only the basic group properties are being used here. (note to the less technical: what I mean by that is that a proof relating to addition and subtraction is just the same whether you are able to do multiplication or not).
    Last edited by Euro-commuter; 31 July 2007, 20:26.

    Leave a comment:


  • SallyAnne
    replied
    Originally posted by bored
    The exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.
    Ah yes, the axioms!!! I was going to say that!!

    Leave a comment:


  • scotspine
    replied
    Originally posted by bored
    The exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.
    at last. someone else who *knows*.
    Last edited by scotspine; 31 July 2007, 16:31.

    Leave a comment:


  • bored
    replied
    The exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.

    Leave a comment:


  • BlasterBates
    replied
    no no no


    Given x>0 y> 0

    then ....


    tch

    Leave a comment:


  • wendigo100
    replied
    What do those little arrow things mean again?

    Leave a comment:


  • Euro-commuter
    replied
    Originally posted by BlasterBates
    Simple question fo mathematicians

    If x > 0 and y > 0

    How do you formally prove x+y > 0
    Assume the opposite is true, i.e. there exist x and y such that
    x > 0
    y > 0
    x+y <= 0.

    then x+y-y <= 0-y
    i.e. x <= -y
    but y > 0 so -y < 0
    therefore x < 0 which contradicts first premise.

    Therefore the assumption is false, so there do not exist x any y such that
    x > 0
    y > 0
    x+y <= 0.
    Therefore x+y > 0.



    PS just how many of us claimed to have a maths degree??

    Leave a comment:

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