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Reply to: HMRC VAT Return with late payment
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Previously on "HMRC VAT Return with late payment"
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Lifted straight from the HMRC VAT Webpage
Joining the cash accounting scheme
You do not need to complete an application form or advise HMRC to start using the cash accounting scheme.
You can start using cash accounting for VAT:
* at the beginning of any VAT period if you are already registered for VAT
* from the day you register for VAT if you are not already registered
If you are already registered for VAT when you start using cash accounting, you must make sure that you do not account for VAT twice on any sales or purchases. You must identify and separate any transactions in your records that you have already accounted for using standard VAT accounting.
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Originally posted by Lewis View PostHow did you swap? I thought you could just chose to do your VAT accounting on a cash basis, do you need to register with HMRC in some way that this is what you are doing?
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Originally posted by Lewis View PostHow did you swap? I thought you could just chose to do your VAT accounting on a cash basis, do you need to register with HMRC in some way that this is what you are doing?
There's a turnover limit for cash accounting IIRC.
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Originally posted by Lewis View PostHow did you swap? I thought you could just chose to do your VAT accounting on a cash basis, do you need to register with HMRC in some way that this is what you are doing?
Would have an effect on brollies which makes you wonder why they don't chase up unpaid bills on behalf of their "employees" more aggresively.
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Originally posted by Lewis View PostHow did you swap? I thought you could just chose to do your VAT accounting on a cash basis, do you need to register with HMRC in some way that this is what you are doing?
http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/vat/account-cash.htm
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Originally posted by AlanR View PostDave,
Happy to be proven wrong but i believe this is only the case if you are using Cash Accounting Scheme for VAT, if not then the amount of VAT due is based on Invoice / Tax date. For example, an invoice raised on the 30th June but not paid until, say, 15 July will be due for payment in the VAT period that covers the 30th June.
Thats my understanding, can anybody confirm this.
Regards
Alan
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Originally posted by techno View PostThe VAT people were very helpful and recommended I should be on the cash basis as this will protect me from a similar situation in the future and I swapped over to the cash basis and it is better for cashflow.
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As per the others, it depends on what VAT scheme you are on - either Accruals of Cash basis.
If on cash basis then there is no vat liable until you receive the money, but if on accrual basis then vat is liable when invoice is raised.
This happened to me early days when an agnecy went bust and I was on the accrual basis. I spoke to the VAT people at the time and they explained the VAT must be paid as normal but after two further VAT quarters and you have still not received the money then you declare it as a bad debt and the VAT then can be accounted for on the next VAT return (as though from a purchase so you are effectively getting the VAT back).
Obviously if you then get the money after all that you need to pay the VAT again.
The VAT people were very helpful and recommended I should be on the cash basis as this will protect me from a similar situation in the future and I swapped over to the cash basis and it is better for cashflow.
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Originally posted by AlanR View PostDave,
Happy to be proven wrong but i believe this is only the case if you are using Cash Accounting Scheme for VAT, if not then the amount of VAT due is based on Invoice / Tax date. For example, an invoice raised on the 30th June but not paid until, say, 15 July will be due for payment in the VAT period that covers the 30th June.
Thats my understanding, can anybody confirm this.
Regards
Alan
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Only if on Cash Accounting Scheme?
Originally posted by DaveB View PostVAT is only payable on monies recieved, not just invoiced. HMRC are not quite so bad, yet, that they expect you to pay VAT when you havn't actually recieved it in the first place!
Happy to be proven wrong but i believe this is only the case if you are using Cash Accounting Scheme for VAT, if not then the amount of VAT due is based on Invoice / Tax date. For example, an invoice raised on the 30th June but not paid until, say, 15 July will be due for payment in the VAT period that covers the 30th June.
Thats my understanding, can anybody confirm this.
Regards
Alan
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Originally posted by Manic View PostSituation:
Agency owed several hundred thousand by end client having difficulty paying......Payment plan under negotiation. Several contractors owed money, some monies have been paid.
One contractor operating limited company owed £16k. The payment plan reflects the invoices sent, however at this stage no payment has been made to that individuals company. Obviously invoices are + VAT, and the VAT is now due.
Does this need to be accounted for at this stage? or more simply must HMRC get their money before the VAT has been paid?. It is possible that the debt may roll for some time yet, with a further possibility the end client will not pay.
Manic
If you are on the FRS then I can see no reason not to be doing cash received. If you are not on the FRS I Can see no reason not to be doing cash accounting unless you are a net reclaimer.
In any event you used to have to request to move from bills delivered (the default) to cash received. I believe that now you can just elect to do so - but check on HMRC.
If you are carrying a debt for some time then you should almost certainly make sure you are cash received basis for VAT.
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VAT is only payable on monies recieved, not just invoiced. HMRC are not quite so bad, yet, that they expect you to pay VAT when you havn't actually recieved it in the first place!
When you complete your VAT return you only declare turnover including VAT that you have actually recieved for the period in question.
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HMRC VAT Return with late payment
Situation:
Agency owed several hundred thousand by end client having difficulty paying......Payment plan under negotiation. Several contractors owed money, some monies have been paid.
One contractor operating limited company owed £16k. The payment plan reflects the invoices sent, however at this stage no payment has been made to that individuals company. Obviously invoices are + VAT, and the VAT is now due.
Does this need to be accounted for at this stage? or more simply must HMRC get their money before the VAT has been paid?. It is possible that the debt may roll for some time yet, with a further possibility the end client will not pay.
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