Can Anyone Explain in Retard-Friendly Terms....

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TheFaQQer replied

1 June 2007, 12:15
Really need the full context!

Does it mean that you can work for someone else at the same time, and the client can employ more than one contractor?
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Kyajae replied

1 June 2007, 12:09
Originally posted by Bluebird

mutually exclusine - 2 things can't happen at the same, although 1 or other can.

Can you provide exact wording ?

I think I fluffed it on the terminology (brain still hurting) - I think mutality of obligation is the right term. Cheers all.
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Bluebird replied

1 June 2007, 12:09
just thought does it relate to you working for the end client ?

Ie you can't work for the end client unless you work through the agency...?
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Bluebird replied

1 June 2007, 12:08
mutually exclusine - 2 things can't happen at the same, although 1 or other can.

Can you provide exact wording ?
Leave a comment:
malvolio replied

1 June 2007, 12:08
aka Mutality of Obligation, surely?

At its simplest, the client is not obliged to pay you if there is no work for you to do, and you do not have the right to charge the client if there is no work for you to do. Further, the client does not have to find you work, and you do not have to accept any work offered.

Also the main reason why symmetrical notice periods are a bad idea.

OK?
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Kyajae started a topic Can Anyone Explain in Retard-Friendly Terms....

1 June 2007, 11:49
Can Anyone Explain in Retard-Friendly Terms....

....what the feck 'mutual exclusivity' means in relation to contracts and IR35?

My brain hurts.
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