Visitors can check out the Forum FAQ by clicking this link. You have to register before you can post: click the REGISTER link above to proceed. To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below. View our Forum Privacy Policy.
Want to receive the latest contracting news and advice straight to your inbox? Sign up to the ContractorUK newsletter here. Every sign up will also be entered into a draw to WIN £100 Amazon vouchers!
You are not logged in or you do not have permission to access this page. This could be due to one of several reasons:
You are not logged in. If you are already registered, fill in the form below to log in, or follow the "Sign Up" link to register a new account.
You may not have sufficient privileges to access this page. Are you trying to edit someone else's post, access administrative features or some other privileged system?
If you are trying to post, the administrator may have disabled your account, or it may be awaiting activation.
No idea on strict legal ruling, but my thoughts would be that you'd be paid on the last day of the month for work done that month.
When you leave there'll likely be plenty of other bits and bobs (over/under holiday allowance, TOIL not used, pending bonuses etc etc), so quite normal for there to be a further "payslip" that follows a little after you've left, tidying up the loose ends.
Bank of six chaps, all contractors, we have a 50/50 split on what we think we mean by monthly in arrears.
Assuming a pay day of "last working day of the month".
I take the view that if you work 1st day of the month to last working day of month A, you'd need to be paid for that work on the last working day of month B. A couple of scenarios which come to mind:
because payroll would need time to process your attendance, i.e. you might have had a week's holiday and a day off sick
because you're not leaving enough time for BACS to get the money out to the employee on pay day if you're processing your pay run actually on pay day
So I suppose that my understanding of "monthly in arrears" is "one month after the working period has closed".
Three of my colleagues take the view that if you from work 1st day of the month to last working day of month A, monthly in arrears means you are paid on that same last working day of month A, but I can't see how that would work for the above reasons.
So I suppose that their understanding of "monthly in arrears" is "at the end of the working period".
What's the correct definition?
Last edited by 7specialgems; 21 September 2015, 13:07.
Leave a comment: