Originally posted by malvolio
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My contract states that I may provide a substitute with the prior written permission of the client (which in my case would be the consultancy between me and the end PS client.
But as the prior answer to a ROS q was "no it hasn't happened yet" I don't know if that written permission would be given or whether the consultancy would defer to PS.
As a "worker" I "could" confirm that I have a ROS and be responsible for paying that substitute. But I'm not asked that.
I'm asked what would the client do if offered a substitute that I'm contractually allowed to provide. The possible answers should be at least yes / no / don't know.
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