New loan charge letters from HMRC

[Thin White Duke]

Are you utterly helpless. Do some of your own legwork. Not up to other people to wait on you hand and foot.

Cut and paste what "para 35A Schedule 11 Finance (No 2) Act 2017" and you are taken straight to it. It reads like utter gobbledygook to me but it's right there.

Thank you for your valuable input. It has been noted. Are you Iliketax's Mum by any chance?

[Iliketax]

Thank you for your valuable input.

I'm glad you've got it sorted.

[Thin White Duke]

I'm glad you've got it sorted.

Thanks

[Thin White Duke]

I'm glad you've got it sorted.

As I thought; basically no need to disclose anything if you did not have an outstanding loan at either 5/4/19 or 16/3/16.

[Iliketax]

As I thought; basically no need to disclose anything if you did not have an outstanding loan at either 5/4/19 or 16/3/16.

Great. Now just collate your evidence of repayment for when HMRC enquire into your 2018/19 tax return.

[Paralytic]

Thanks. I may just be in the lucky 0.1%.

Out of interest, when you pay back the loan, i assume the funds go back with the trustees? Is that right? Did you pay the loan back to avoid the Loan Charge or for another reason? If the former, what advantage did that have over paying the loan charge (or settling)?

And do you expect the funds to sit with the trustee in perpetuity now, or do you have a plan to extract the funds in future?

I realise you may not want to answer since HMRC will be reading this

[Thin White Duke]

Great. Now just collate your evidence of repayment for when HMRC enquire into your 2018/19 tax return.

So many assumptions...

[Iliketax]

So many assumptions...

Sorry, I just assumed you had evidence.

[Thin White Duke]

Sorry, I just assumed you had evidence.

I do... but you are making other assumptions. I'm being vague due to who may be watching.

[Thin White Duke]

Out of interest, when you pay back the loan, i assume the funds go back with the trustees? Is that right? Did you pay the loan back to avoid the Loan Charge or for another reason? If the former, what advantage did that have over paying the loan charge (or settling)?

And do you expect the funds to sit with the trustee in perpetuity now, or do you have a plan to extract the funds in future?

I realise you may not want to answer since HMRC will be reading this

Maybe you are HMRC double bluffing?