Hi All,
I only contracted for a few months between 2017 and 2018 through my own limited company. I used an offshore/non-trust/employer/first party/"not caught" loan programme. I received a loan, a retainer equal to the tax free allowance, and was paid in dividends up to the allowable tax free amount.
After reading all of the helpful posts on here, it looks like, more likely than not, I probably could face liability (despite what the programme is telling me - "HMRC won't contact you" / "you aren't caught" etc).
Before and after my brief stint in contracting, I was and am a permanent employee, paying PAYE and NIC, so I am all paid up on that front.
The accountants on my limited company have been filed, corporation tax paid, VAT paid, and my limited company has been shut down. I should note that coproration tax paid was based on profits derived by taking my turnover less the amount that I paid the management company (for cost of sales), so the corporation tax was minimal. Dividends were taken to the 0% rate and declared on my 17/18 SA.
If I were to settle with HMRC, would I settle on behalf of my limited company (now shut down), and be able to arrive at liability as if I had paid limited company tax the traditional way (i.e., small salary, maximising dividends, paying NIC as appropriate). Or, as the only director / employee of the limited company, do the loans just automatically count as personal taxable income for either 2017/2018 if I settle or 2018/2019 if I take a loan charge? Am I able to take any deductions for expenses, etc. incurred while running the business, or is it literally just adding the loans to your SA and calculating the difference in tax and NIC (for both settlement and the loan charge).
If it's purely taxable income, my tax position is actually better (I think) if I take the loan charge (based on my dubious estimates). However, I DEFINITELY need TTP.
If you approach HMRC after disclosing loans before 30/9/19, does anyone know if they will be more flexible than the standard 12 months max for TTP (i.e., along the lines of settlement on a what you can absolutely afford basis), especially if you do so before it goes to DMB?
Also, does anyone know how the "loan question" will be worded on the 18/19 SA / online disclosure? I assume it will be broad, like "do you have a disguised remuneraiton loan" lol.
Thanks in advance - I know this is a highly untechnical explanation and set of questions, but I am not an accountant (so please be nice)!
I only contracted for a few months between 2017 and 2018 through my own limited company. I used an offshore/non-trust/employer/first party/"not caught" loan programme. I received a loan, a retainer equal to the tax free allowance, and was paid in dividends up to the allowable tax free amount.
After reading all of the helpful posts on here, it looks like, more likely than not, I probably could face liability (despite what the programme is telling me - "HMRC won't contact you" / "you aren't caught" etc).
Before and after my brief stint in contracting, I was and am a permanent employee, paying PAYE and NIC, so I am all paid up on that front.
The accountants on my limited company have been filed, corporation tax paid, VAT paid, and my limited company has been shut down. I should note that coproration tax paid was based on profits derived by taking my turnover less the amount that I paid the management company (for cost of sales), so the corporation tax was minimal. Dividends were taken to the 0% rate and declared on my 17/18 SA.
If I were to settle with HMRC, would I settle on behalf of my limited company (now shut down), and be able to arrive at liability as if I had paid limited company tax the traditional way (i.e., small salary, maximising dividends, paying NIC as appropriate). Or, as the only director / employee of the limited company, do the loans just automatically count as personal taxable income for either 2017/2018 if I settle or 2018/2019 if I take a loan charge? Am I able to take any deductions for expenses, etc. incurred while running the business, or is it literally just adding the loans to your SA and calculating the difference in tax and NIC (for both settlement and the loan charge).
If it's purely taxable income, my tax position is actually better (I think) if I take the loan charge (based on my dubious estimates). However, I DEFINITELY need TTP.
If you approach HMRC after disclosing loans before 30/9/19, does anyone know if they will be more flexible than the standard 12 months max for TTP (i.e., along the lines of settlement on a what you can absolutely afford basis), especially if you do so before it goes to DMB?
Also, does anyone know how the "loan question" will be worded on the 18/19 SA / online disclosure? I assume it will be broad, like "do you have a disguised remuneraiton loan" lol.
Thanks in advance - I know this is a highly untechnical explanation and set of questions, but I am not an accountant (so please be nice)!
Comment