Originally posted by threaded
The farmer next door has been ill for a few weeks and therefore could not claim to be "working his land" - does this give you the right to now own his land on the basis that he hasnt worked it for a while ?
Who decides what period of "not working it" counts as valid before the lands is up for grabs for anyone to use ?
Lets say that this situation occurs several times per year in an area, causing much upset and argument every time it does so. The local wisemen (and women and those that havent yet decided) get together and agree that "non-worked land is land that hasnt been worked for 6 months or more"
So they pass a COMMON LAW to that fact (or locally accepted agreement which amounts to the same thing)....and there we are back at square one with a system of COMMON LAW which in time will quickly expand to cover all manner things


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