Isn't that one of the fundamental assumptions of maths?
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Question For Mathematicians
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If x>0 and y>0
then 0<x and 0<y
Therefore x+y>0 and 0<x+y
Also 0+0<x and 0+0<y
Therefore x>0+0 and y>0+0
So x+y is also > 0+0
Got it?
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Assume the opposite is true, i.e. there exist x and y such thatOriginally posted by BlasterBatesSimple question fo mathematicians
If x > 0 and y > 0
How do you formally prove x+y > 0
x > 0
y > 0
x+y <= 0.
then x+y-y <= 0-y
i.e. x <= -y
but y > 0 so -y < 0
therefore x < 0 which contradicts first premise.
Therefore the assumption is false, so there do not exist x any y such that
x > 0
y > 0
x+y <= 0.
Therefore x+y > 0.
PS just how many of us claimed to have a maths degree??God made men. Sam Colt made them equal.Comment
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The exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.Comment
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at last. someone else who *knows*.Originally posted by boredThe exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.Last edited by scotspine; 31 July 2007, 16:31.Comment
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Ah yes, the axioms!!! I was going to say that!!Originally posted by boredThe exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.
The pope is a tard.Comment
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I assumed a strict total order, i.e. asymmetric and transitive. But it does indeed have to be at least a group. Surely though the proof for a strictly stronger space like a ring or a field would be just the same as for a group? Only the basic group properties are being used here. (note to the less technical: what I mean by that is that a proof relating to addition and subtraction is just the same whether you are able to do multiplication or not).Originally posted by boredThe exact proof depends on what axioms you assume for the "<" ordering. Say the proof will be different if you start with the axioms of an ordered group or an ordered field.Last edited by Euro-commuter; 31 July 2007, 20:26.God made men. Sam Colt made them equal.Comment
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Assuming x and y are real numbers, it follows from the fact that the set of real numbers is an ordered fieldOriginally posted by BlasterBatesSimple question fo mathematicians
If x > 0 and y > 0
How do you formally prove x+y > 0
As someone else mentioned (I forget who), x > 0 implies x + y > y for any real y (not necessarily positive).
Also by the transitive property of a strict total order if z > y and y > t then z > t, where in particular you can take z = x + y and t = 0.Work in the public sector? Read the IR35 FAQ hereComment
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