Originally posted by Rory Dwyer
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Also, this is a first year law degree concept, if a case is about subject x (say the civil Accenture case on VAT) and another case is about subject y (say your criminal case centring around the Conduct Regs) then a judge DOES NOT have to abide by the decision of that superior court in subject x. For him to have done so was a way of deciding in your favour, probably because he thought the contractor was a bit of a chancer first freely opting out then trying to stop himself being stuck with a massive financial penalty by saying the opt out was invalid.
You could have a re-run of your case with a contractor who is all sweetness and light, misled into opting out and then relying on the regulations to stop himself going bankrupt (cue violins in the background), the judge might then pull out another case on, say, pure contract law citing that a material provision of the contract, i.e. that you stated you were an employment business, was so important that it automatically invalidated the contract when you swore to the court you weren't, putting you firmly and squarely within the sights of the Conduct Regs. The contractor sues for his £15,000 in overdue day rates and you don't get the £39,600 for allowing him to go direct.
The lowest end criminal courts are all about facts and manipulating the laws to fit the facts of the case rather than fitting the case to the law of the land. I could probably find a cohesive and valid argument for almost any case using valid precedents from superior courts (Court of Appeal and the Supreme Court or its predecessor the House of Lords)
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