I'm due to get married in the near future and have a large amount of profit (> 90k) residing in the company. Once I get married I plan to split my company shareholding with a 50/50 split. If I were to declare a dividend shortly after the share transfer has taken place (say, a 40k dividend per person less than 5 days after the transfer has taken place), are there any grounds which indicate that the transfer is a 'wholly or substantially' right to income? This is based off http://www.nixonwilliams.com/images/...20Shifting.pdf
N.B NW are my accountants, I have spoken to my accountant @ NW regarding this who said it depends on how HMRC view the timing of the share transfer, I have PCG+ membership and I've searched the forums, so I'm looking to get the opinions of others on this forum.
Based on the flow chart on page 3 of the PDF, it appears that spouses have an exemption to this rule. We are and will be living together when we get married. The money will be going into separate bank accounts, and my spouse will get ordinary shares with full voting rights.
N.B NW are my accountants, I have spoken to my accountant @ NW regarding this who said it depends on how HMRC view the timing of the share transfer, I have PCG+ membership and I've searched the forums, so I'm looking to get the opinions of others on this forum.
Based on the flow chart on page 3 of the PDF, it appears that spouses have an exemption to this rule. We are and will be living together when we get married. The money will be going into separate bank accounts, and my spouse will get ordinary shares with full voting rights.
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