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No To Retro Tax – Campaign Against Section 58 Finance Act 2008

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    Ok. I'm lost.

    Can anyone sum up in 2 lines the outcome ?

    Foes it mean only people using these from now on need to pay tax upfront while waiting for case to be judged on in courts ?

    Or does it mean anyone in the past who used these schemes has to pay up now also ?

    Comment


      Originally posted by DonkeyRhubarb View Post
      They are using the word "fall" to mean either (a) were disclosed or (b) should have been disclosed.
      So does the retrospection go back before the DOTAS requirement (2004)?

      The second clause of falling under GAAR suggests it does if GAAR is applied retrospectively.

      Comment


        Originally posted by screwthis View Post
        So does the retrospection go back before the DOTAS requirement (2004)?
        No.

        The second clause of falling under GAAR suggests it does if GAAR is applied retrospectively.
        I doubt the DTA scheme would be a candidate for the GAAR when there is already primary legislation S58 to counteract it.

        Comment


          So if my liability is spread over 2001-2005, this new legislation can force me to pay without interest the disputed amount post 2004, but the 2001-2004 amount is still classified under the on-going s58?

          Comment


            Originally posted by MuddyFunster View Post
            So if my liability is spread over 2001-2005, this new legislation can force me to pay without interest the disputed amount post 2004, but the 2001-2004 amount is still classified under the on-going s58?
            That is a reasonably safe assumption.

            Comment


              Originally posted by MuddyFunster View Post
              So if my liability is spread over 2001-2005, this new legislation can force me to pay without interest the disputed amount post 2004, but the 2001-2004 amount is still classified under the on-going s58?
              And what about those who've been using loan based schemes since '08 'til now. We're going to be proper screwed without any trial or hearing whatsoever. May as well just hand my keys in to the mortgage lender now
              Lord Clyde in 1929: ‘No man is under the smallest obligation, moral or other, so to arrange his legal relations to his business or to his property as to enable the Revenue to put the largest possible shovel into his stores. The Revenue is not slow to take every advantage which is open to it under the taxing statutes for the purpose of depleting the taxpayer’s pocket. And the taxpayer is entitled to be astute to prevent, so far as he honestly can, the depletion of his means by the Revenue.’

              Comment


                Originally posted by MuddyFunster View Post
                So if my liability is spread over 2001-2005, this new legislation can force me to pay without interest the disputed amount post 2004, but the 2001-2004 amount is still classified under the on-going s58?
                just trying to work out my exposure, so does DOTAS catch tax year 2004 and on? i.e. is this everything from 5th April 2004 onwards, or 5th April 2005. I cant find anything concrete and it makes a big difference to me personally!!

                Comment


                  Originally posted by nick4notax View Post
                  And what about those who've been using loan based schemes since '08 'til now. We're going to be proper screwed without any trial or hearing whatsoever. May as well just hand my keys in to the mortgage lender now
                  I'm in "no way can I pay" mode, and looking like doubly so now. What happens when I get the demand? Should I be seeking advice from an Insolvency Practitioner now? Anybody.

                  Comment


                    Originally posted by smalldog View Post
                    just trying to work out my exposure, so does DOTAS catch tax year 2004 and on? i.e. is this everything from 5th April 2004 onwards, or 5th April 2005. I cant find anything concrete and it makes a big difference to me personally!!
                    It's not clear.

                    One of the goons at the JR said it applied to any returns filed after October 2004, which is when Montpelier were issued with the SRN, but I don't think that's right.

                    Comment


                      Can anyone give a one line summary where we are at please?
                      I'm lost.

                      I was using a EBT loan scheme since 2010 - 2012.

                      Does it mean i must pay up now? Or am I safe until a tribunal rules (whenever that may be)

                      Comment

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